Nursing Elites

1. The medical record for a client states that the client has hemiplegia. What does this mean?

• A. The client can use his right arm, left leg, and left arm.
• B. The client has paralysis of all four extremities.
• C. The client has decreased vision in one eye.
• D. The client has paralysis on one side of the body.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hemiplegia refers to paralysis on one side of the body, affecting either the right or left side. Choice A is incorrect because it describes selective paralysis of specific limbs, not one side of the body. Choice B is incorrect as hemiplegia does not involve paralysis of all four extremities. Choice C is also incorrect as decreased vision in one eye is not indicative of hemiplegia.

2. What complication of fractures is caused by increased pressure which can result in decreased circulation to the area?

• A. Venous thromboembolism
• B. Acute compartment syndrome
• C. Fat embolism syndrome
• D. Hemorrhage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute compartment syndrome is the correct answer. It involves increased pressure within muscles, leading to decreased blood flow and tissue damage. Venous thromboembolism (Choice A) is a condition where a blood clot forms in a vein, usually in the leg. Fat embolism syndrome (Choice C) occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and block blood vessels. Hemorrhage (Choice D) refers to bleeding, which can occur with fractures but does not specifically involve increased pressure leading to decreased circulation as in acute compartment syndrome.

3. What statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the timing of progression of human immunodefiency virus (HIV) to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?

• A. "Sexually transmitted infections will not make AIDS develop faster"?
• B. "My diet does not influence the progression of HIV to AIDS"?
• C. "If I practice medication, I may develop AIDS faster."?
• D. "IF I am re-exposed to HIV, the progression to AIDS may be faster,"?

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

4. A client is post-operative day 1 and reports a sudden increase in blood-tinged liquid draining from his incision after feeling a popping sensation. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Send the client back to surgery
• B. Assess the wound for signs of dehiscence
• C. Call the provider immediately
• D. Prepare to culture the wound

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

5. A client has suffered from a femur fracture. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Pain
• B. Medication history
• C. Pedal pulses
• D. Socio-economic status

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

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