the main concern with collective bargaining is that it will

ATI RN

Leadership ATI Proctored

1. What is the main concern with collective bargaining?

A. Create tension among nurses.
B. Reform health care.
C. Secure economic security.
D. Unite the nurses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main concern with collective bargaining is that it can create tension among nurses. The bargaining process may lead to divisions between staff nurses and management, rather than uniting them. This tension can arise from differing priorities, goals, or interests between the two groups, potentially impacting the effectiveness of the bargaining process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the primary focus of the concern is on the potential negative impact on nurse relationships, not on reforming healthcare, ensuring economic security, or uniting nurses.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diarrhea due to shigella. Which of the following precautions should the nurse implement for this client?

A. Have the client wear a mask when receiving visitors.
B. Limit the client's time with visitors to no more than 30 minutes per day.
C. Assign the client to a room with negative-pressure airflow exchange.
D. Wear a gown when caring for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because limiting the client's time with visitors helps prevent the spread of shigella infection to others. Shigella is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, so minimizing contact time reduces the risk of transmission. Choice A is incorrect as there is no need for the client to wear a mask in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as negative-pressure airflow exchange rooms are typically used for clients with airborne infections. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a gown is not the primary precaution needed for shigella infection.

3.

A. The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him.
B. The RN asks the client why he wishes to leave.
C. The RN asks the client to explain what he understands about his medical diagnosis.
D. The RN asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him would be considered false imprisonment.

4. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

A. 0.40 FTEs
B. 17.0 FTEs
C. 0.05 FTEs
D. 1.0 FTEs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

5. A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Blood pressure 144/82 mm Hg
B. Urine specific gravity 1.03
C. Neck vein distention
D. Urine specific gravity 1.01

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client experiencing vomiting and diarrhea, the nurse should expect findings such as dehydration, which can lead to hypovolemia and subsequent increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. A blood pressure of 144/82 mm Hg is indicative of possible dehydration in this client. Urine specific gravity is typically increased in dehydrated individuals, so choices B and D are incorrect. Neck vein distention is not a typical finding associated with vomiting and diarrhea; therefore, choice C is also incorrect.