Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is assessing for fontanels on the head of a 6-month-old. Which fontanel is expected to still be present?

• A. Posterior
• B. Anterior
• C. Sphenoid
• D. Lambdoid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anterior. The anterior fontanel usually remains open until about 12-18 months of age, while the posterior fontanel closes by 2-3 months. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the posterior fontanel closes by 2-3 months of age, and the sphenoid and lambdoid fontanels are not typically assessed in routine infant head examinations.

2. What pathologic process is believed to be responsible for the development of postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

• A. Infarction of renal vessels
• B. Immune complex formation and glomerular deposition
• C. Bacterial endotoxin deposition on and destruction of glomeruli
• D. Embolization of glomeruli by bacteria and fibrin from endocardial vegetation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postinfectious glomerulonephritis is typically caused by immune complex deposition in the glomeruli following a streptococcal infection. This immune response leads to inflammation and impaired kidney function.

3. The parents of a newborn with an umbilical hernia ask about treatment options. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge?

• A. Surgery is recommended as soon as possible.
• B. The defect usually resolves spontaneously by 3 to 5 years of age.
• C. Aggressive treatment is necessary to reduce its high mortality.
• D. Taping the abdomen to flatten the protrusion is not recommended.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Most umbilical hernias in newborns resolve on their own by 3 to 5 years of age without the need for surgical intervention, unless complications arise. Surgery is not typically recommended for umbilical hernias in newborns due to the high rate of spontaneous resolution. Aggressive treatment is not necessary as umbilical hernias are typically benign and not associated with high mortality. Taping the abdomen is not recommended as it can cause skin irritation and does not speed up the resolution of the hernia.

4. The nurse is admitting a child with severe isotonic dehydration. Which intravenous fluid should the nurse anticipate the doctor to order initially to replace fluids?

• A. 0.9% normal saline
• B. D5 0.2% (1/4) normal saline
• C. D5W
• D. Albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of severe isotonic dehydration, the initial fluid of choice is 0.9% normal saline. This solution is preferred because it helps to restore both fluids and electrolytes effectively. Options B, C, and D are not suitable for the initial management of severe isotonic dehydration. D5 0.2% (1/4) normal saline (Choice B) is a hypotonic solution and might worsen the imbalance. D5W (Choice C) is a hypotonic solution that does not contain electrolytes essential for rehydration. Albumin (Choice D) is a colloid solution used for specific indications like hypoproteinemia or hypoalbuminemia, not for initial rehydration in severe dehydration.

5. A parent asks the nurse what would be the first indication that acute glomerulonephritis was improving. What would be the nurse's best response?

• A. Blood pressure will stabilize.
• B. Your child will have more energy.
• C. Urine will be free of protein.
• D. Urine output will increase.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increased urine output is often the first sign that acute glomerulonephritis is improving, as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention and better kidney function. Stabilization of blood pressure and other symptoms typically follow.

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