Nursing Elites

1. A client on an ACE inhibitor reports a persistent cough. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Reassure the client that the cough is a common side effect and is usually not serious.
• B. Instruct the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider as it may require discontinuation of the medication.
• C. Advise the client to use a humidifier at night to relieve the cough.
• D. Suggest the client take an over-the-counter cough suppressant.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent cough in a client on an ACE inhibitor may indicate a serious side effect that requires discontinuation of the medication. Instructing the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider is essential for proper evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client may delay necessary action. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier may not address the underlying cause of the cough. Choice D is incorrect because taking a cough suppressant without healthcare provider guidance may mask symptoms without addressing the cause.

2. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Administer Digibind.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

3. Which of the following is a type of heart valve disease where the aortic valve becomes narrowed, restricting blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body?

• A. Aortic stenosis
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Tricuspid regurgitation
• D. Pulmonary hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Aortic stenosis. In aortic stenosis, the aortic valve becomes narrowed, which obstructs the blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. This condition can lead to symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and fainting. Mitral stenosis (choice B) involves narrowing of the mitral valve, not the aortic valve. Tricuspid regurgitation (choice C) is a condition where the tricuspid valve leaks, causing blood to flow backward in the heart. Pulmonary hypertension (choice D) is high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs.

4. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

5. This is a procedure where a small mesh tube is inserted into an artery to keep it open and improve blood flow.

• A. Stent placement
• B. Angioplasty
• C. Bypass surgery
• D. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stent placement is a procedure where a small mesh tube (stent) is inserted into an artery to keep it open and improve blood flow, often following angioplasty.

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