Nursing Elites

1. A client on a beta blocker has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
• C. Increase the dose of the beta blocker.
• D. Continue to monitor the client and reassess in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 52 bpm is low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing harm. Therefore, withholding the medication and promptly informing the healthcare provider is crucial for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the bradycardia. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would further suppress the heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) might delay necessary interventions and increase the risk of complications in a client with a heart rate of 52 bpm.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about side effects of ACE inhibitors. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough in patients. This side effect is important to monitor because it can indicate the development of angioedema, a serious adverse reaction that requires immediate medical attention. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not typically the most important one to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also possible side effects of ACE inhibitors, but they are not as critical to monitor as the development of a persistent cough.

3. In cases of myocardial infarction leading to shock, which medication is appropriate to counteract shock?

• A. Atropine
• B. Dopamine
• C. Digoxin
• D. Adenosine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of myocardial infarction leading to shock, dopamine is the drug of choice. Dopamine helps increase blood pressure and improve blood flow to vital organs, making it beneficial in managing shock. Atropine is mainly used for symptomatic bradycardia, not for shock. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used in heart failure and atrial fibrillation, not for managing shock. Adenosine is typically used for diagnosing and treating supraventricular tachycardias, not for shock associated with myocardial infarction.

4. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Creatinine
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

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