Nursing Elites

1. A client on a beta blocker has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
• C. Increase the dose of the beta blocker.
• D. Continue to monitor the client and reassess in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 52 bpm is low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing harm. Therefore, withholding the medication and promptly informing the healthcare provider is crucial for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the bradycardia. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would further suppress the heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) might delay necessary interventions and increase the risk of complications in a client with a heart rate of 52 bpm.

2. Which condition is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways resulting in excess mucus production, leading to frequent coughing and breathing difficulties?

• A. Chronic bronchitis
• B. Asthma
• C. Pneumonia
• D. COPD

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis involves long-term inflammation of the bronchi, leading to excessive mucus production, frequent coughing, and breathing difficulties. Asthma (B) is characterized by reversible airway obstruction and bronchospasms. Pneumonia (C) is an infection of the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. COPD (D) is a term used to describe chronic lung diseases that cause airflow blockage and breathing-related problems.

3. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

4. Which disease is characterized by the damage to the alveoli in the lungs, leading to breathlessness?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Pulmonary fibrosis
• C. Lung cancer
• D. Lung abscess

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Emphysema. Emphysema is a lung condition characterized by the damage to the air sacs (alveoli) in the lungs, which results in breathlessness and reduced lung function. Pulmonary fibrosis (B) is a condition where lung tissue becomes damaged and scarred, leading to stiffness in the lungs. Lung cancer (C) is a malignancy affecting the lungs, which can cause various symptoms depending on the stage. Lung abscess (D) is a localized collection of pus within the lung tissue, typically caused by a bacterial infection.

5. The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer vitamin K.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.8 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin. Holding the next dose of warfarin would be appropriate if the INR was too high, but not as the first-line action. Increasing the dose of warfarin would worsen the situation by further increasing the INR. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to address the elevated INR is necessary.

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