the client is on furosemide lasix and has a potassium level of 29 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. The client is on furosemide (Lasix) and has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer potassium supplements. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. Therefore, the priority action is to administer potassium supplements to correct the imbalance. Option B is incorrect because holding the furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could further worsen the imbalance. Option C is incorrect as continuing the current dose of furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could lead to complications. Option D is incorrect because decreasing the dose of furosemide does not directly address the low potassium level that needs immediate correction.

2. This is the inflammation of the heart's inner lining, usually caused by an infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Endocarditis is the inflammation of the inner lining of the heart's chambers and valves, usually caused by a bacterial infection. Myocarditis is the inflammation of the heart muscle, Pericarditis is the inflammation of the pericardium (the outer lining of the heart), and Valvulitis is the inflammation of the heart valves. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is Endocarditis as it specifically refers to the inflammation of the heart's inner lining.

3. Which term describes a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is indeed a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria. This condition can increase the risk of stroke and heart failure. Choice B, Ventricular fibrillation, is incorrect because it refers to a life-threatening arrhythmia that occurs in the ventricles, not the atria. Choice C, Atrial flutter, is incorrect as it describes a different type of atrial arrhythmia characterized by a regular but fast heartbeat. Choice D, Sinus tachycardia, is incorrect because it is a normal increase in heart rate originating from the sinus node, not an abnormal rhythm.

4. The nurse is caring for a client on heparin. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: aPTT. When a client is on heparin therapy, monitoring the aPTT is crucial. The aPTT helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing blood clots and guides dose adjustments as needed. INR (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) is important to assess for potential bleeding disorders or thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor for heparin therapy. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not the most important lab value to monitor when a client is on heparin.

5. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart over a period of time, typically 24 to 48 hours?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Holter monitor. A Holter monitor is a portable device that records the electrical activity of the heart over a period of 24 to 48 hours. It is used to detect arrhythmias and other heart conditions. Choice B, Echocardiogram, is a test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart's structure and function, not focused on the electrical activity. Choice C, Stress test, evaluates the heart's function under stress but does not monitor electrical activity over an extended period. Choice D, Arterial blood gas (ABG), measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, unrelated to measuring the electrical activity of the heart over time.

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