ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers
1. The client is given an alpha agonist. What might it be used for?
- A. For hemostasis
- B. To dilate the arteries
- C. To dilate the veins
- D. To decrease afterload
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Alpha agonists are used for hemostasis to help control bleeding by constricting blood vessels, leading to decreased blood flow to the area. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as alpha agonists do not typically dilate arteries, dilate veins, or decrease afterload.
2. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Administer vitamin K.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.
3. What is a condition where the heart muscle becomes abnormally enlarged, thickened, or stiffened, often leading to heart failure?
- A. Cardiomyopathy
- B. Pericarditis
- C. Aortic stenosis
- D. Mitral valve prolapse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement, thickening, or stiffening of the heart muscle, which can lead to heart failure. Pericarditis (choice B) is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, not directly related to heart muscle enlargement. Aortic stenosis (choice C) is the narrowing of the aortic valve opening, affecting blood flow from the heart, but not directly related to heart muscle enlargement. Mitral valve prolapse (choice D) is a condition where the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle doesn't close properly, causing blood to leak backward, and is not directly related to heart muscle enlargement.
4. Which surgical procedure involves removing a portion of the lung?
- A. Lobectomy
- B. Pneumonectomy
- C. Tracheostomy
- D. Bronchoscopy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A lobectomy is the surgical removal of a lobe of the lung. This procedure is commonly performed to treat conditions like lung cancer or severe lung diseases. Pneumonectomy involves removing an entire lung, making it incorrect. Tracheostomy is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe, not involving lung tissue removal. Bronchoscopy is a diagnostic procedure that allows visualization of the airways using a thin, flexible tube with a camera, not involving lung tissue removal.
5. The nurse is caring for a client on enalapril (Vasotec). What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and cough is a common side effect associated with this class of medication. Monitoring for cough is crucial as it can indicate the development of a potentially serious condition known as angioedema. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not the most important side effect to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also potential side effects of enalapril; however, cough takes precedence due to its association with angioedema, a severe adverse reaction.
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