Nursing Elites

1. The apnea monitor alarm sounds on a neonate for the third time during this shift. What is the priority action by the nurse?

• A. Provide tactile stimulation.
• B. Administer 100% oxygen.
• C. Investigate possible causes of a false alarm.
• D. Assess infant for color and presence of respirations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when the apnea monitor alarm sounds on a neonate is to assess the infant for color and the presence of respirations. This initial assessment helps determine the infant's respiratory status and the need for immediate intervention. Providing tactile stimulation or administering oxygen should only be done after assessing the infant's respiratory status. Investigating possible causes of a false alarm comes after ensuring the infant's well-being through the initial assessment.

2. Parents would suspect hearing loss if their child did not:

• A. Turn away from a sound
• B. Startle with sudden loud noises immediately after birth
• C. Talk at 4 months
• D. Babble at 2 months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because babbling is an early indicator of hearing ability in infants. Lack of babbling by 2 months may suggest a potential hearing issue. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because turning away from a sound, startling with sudden loud noises immediately after birth, and talking at 4 months are not primary indicators of hearing loss in infants.

3. Which best describes signs and symptoms as part of a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Description of potential risk factors
• B. Identification of actual health problems
• C. Human response to state of illness or health
• D. Cues and clusters derived from patient assessment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs and symptoms are cues and clusters derived from patient assessments that are used to form a nursing diagnosis, guiding the development of a care plan.

4. A child is admitted in acute renal failure (ARF). Therapeutic management to rapidly provoke a flow of urine includes the administration of what medication?

• A. Propranolol (Inderal)
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol) or furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Sodium, chloride, and potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mannitol and furosemide are diuretics commonly used to induce diuresis in acute renal failure, helping to provoke urine flow and manage fluid overload. Calcium gluconate and electrolyte supplementation are used for other specific conditions and not primarily for diuresis.

5. What urine test result is considered abnormal?

• A. pH 4.0
• B. WBC 1 or 2 cells/ml
• C. Protein level absent
• D. Specific gravity 1.020

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pH of 4.0 is abnormally low, indicating possible acidosis or other metabolic conditions. WBC count of 1-2 cells/ml, absence of protein, and a specific gravity of 1.020 are within normal limits.

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