Nursing Elites

1. The apnea monitor alarm sounds on a neonate for the third time during this shift. What is the priority action by the nurse?

• A. Provide tactile stimulation.
• B. Administer 100% oxygen.
• C. Investigate possible causes of a false alarm.
• D. Assess infant for color and presence of respirations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when the apnea monitor alarm sounds on a neonate is to assess the infant for color and the presence of respirations. This initial assessment helps determine the infant's respiratory status and the need for immediate intervention. Providing tactile stimulation or administering oxygen should only be done after assessing the infant's respiratory status. Investigating possible causes of a false alarm comes after ensuring the infant's well-being through the initial assessment.

2. Apgar scoring is conducted at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth. It is used to determine:

• A. Major body systems’ responses at birth
• B. Future intelligence of the newborn
• C. Level of parent and newborn interaction
• D. Gestational age of the newborn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Apgar score assesses a newborn's physical condition immediately after birth by evaluating heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color. Therefore, the correct answer is A. The other choices are incorrect because B) the Apgar score does not predict future intelligence, C) it does not measure parent and newborn interaction, and D) it is not used to determine gestational age.

3. Why is knowledge of developmental theories useful for the nurse?

• A. Allows the nurse to know exactly what to do when caring for pediatric patients
• B. Is predictable and aids in controlling the child’s development
• C. Is a set of facts that each child follows in a prescribed method
• D. Provides a framework to guide the nurse in caring for the patient

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Understanding developmental theories helps nurses anticipate and plan appropriate care based on the child’s developmental stage. Choice A is incorrect because developmental theories provide a framework but do not dictate exact actions. Choice B is incorrect as developmental processes are not entirely predictable and are not meant to control a child’s development. Choice C is incorrect as developmental theories are not a strict set of facts that all children follow in a prescribed manner, but rather guidelines for understanding and supporting a child's growth and development.

4. The nurse is caring for a child with the following order: Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 20 mg IV, every 6 hours. The nurse has Methylprednisolone 100 mg in 2 mL available. How many mL should the nurse administer with each dose?

• A. 0.4 mL
• B. 0.2 mL
• C. 0.5 mL
• D. 0.6 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dosage to administer 20 mg is 0.4 mL, calculated by dividing the dose (20 mg) by the concentration (100 mg in 2 mL). This calculation ensures the accurate administration of the prescribed medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided concentration of the medication.

5. Several types of long-term central venous access devices are used. What is a benefit of using an implanted port (e.g., Port-a-Cath)?

• A. You do not need to pierce the skin for access.
• B. It is easy to use for self-administered infusions.
• C. The patient does not need to limit regular physical activity, including swimming.
• D. The catheter cannot dislodge from the port even if the child plays with the port site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Implanted ports like the Port-a-Cath are fully implanted under the skin, allowing the child to maintain regular physical activities, including swimming, without the risk of dislodging the catheter. Piercing the skin is still required for access, and self-administration is more complex.

Similar Questions