potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the found in the kidney
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored

1. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.

2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing dietary fiber intake is essential when taking Verapamil to prevent constipation, a common adverse effect of this medication. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension, and dietary fiber helps maintain bowel regularity and prevent constipation that may occur as a side effect of the medication.

3. A patient is being discharged with a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to monitor for leg cramps. Leg cramps can be a sign of hypokalemia, which is a potential adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide. By monitoring for leg cramps, the patient can detect signs of low potassium levels and report them to the healthcare provider promptly. This proactive approach helps prevent complications associated with hypokalemia. The other options are incorrect because taking Hydrochlorothiazide before bedtime or with food is not specific to the medication's adverse effects. Monitoring for increased blood pressure is not typically a common adverse effect of this medication.

4. A client with cancer and a prescription for methotrexate PO reports bleeding gums while being assessed by a nurse in a provider's clinic. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on methotrexate reports bleeding gums is to check the client's current platelet count. Bleeding gums may indicate thrombocytopenia, a decreased platelet count which can be a severe side effect of methotrexate therapy. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial for early detection and management of this potentially life-threatening complication. Choice A is incorrect as bleeding gums in this context may not be an expected adverse effect of methotrexate. Choice C is irrelevant and does not address the potential underlying issue of thrombocytopenia. Choice D is not the primary action needed at this point; checking the platelet count is more urgent to assess the severity of the situation.

5. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.

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