ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam 2023
1. Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?
- A. An undescended testicle can reduce fertility.
- B. The testicle usually descends spontaneously during the first month of life.
- C. Surgical correction reduces the risk for testicular tumors.
- D. The optimal time to surgically correct the condition is at diagnosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.
2. Which statement most reflects the observation that the infant sleeps soundly, awakens on his own, and maintains a quiet alert state?
- A. This is atypical behavior and should be addressed
- B. The infant should remain on high alert when awake
- C. This shows the infant is making neurological gains
- D. The family is disrupting the child's sleep patterns
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A quiet alert state in infants indicates positive neurological development. It showcases the infant's ability to regulate sleep-wake cycles and maintain an optimal state for learning and interaction. Therefore, observing an infant who sleeps soundly, awakens on his own, and stays in a quiet alert state is a reassuring sign of neurological gains and healthy development. Choice A is incorrect as it misinterprets normal behavior as atypical. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests the infant should be on high alert, which is not developmentally appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as it falsely blames the family for disrupting the child's sleep patterns, whereas the scenario described indicates positive neurological growth.
3. A pediatric client is admitted to the emergency department with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) that caused a loss of consciousness. The last set of vital signs showed heart rate 48, blood pressure (BP) 148/74 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 and irregular. What does the nurse suspect based on these data?
- A. Spinal cord injury
- B. Increased intracranial pressure
- C. Typical for sleep
- D. Improvement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The vital signs of bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations indicate increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia (heart rate of 48), hypertension (blood pressure of 148/74 mmHg), and irregular respirations are typical signs of increased intracranial pressure in a pediatric client with a traumatic brain injury and loss of consciousness.
4. A nurse is teaching a parent of a child who has asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use a peak flow meter daily.
- B. Administer the medication with meals.
- C. Provide a low-carbohydrate diet.
- D. Limit exposure to cold air.
Correct answer: A
Rationale:
5. A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Offer the infant feedings every 2 hours.
- B. Position the infant upright after feedings.
- C. Feed the infant thickened formula.
- D. Place the infant in a prone position after feedings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct posture after feedings is crucial for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux to reduce the risk of regurgitation. Placing the infant upright helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus, minimizing symptoms of reflux.
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