Nursing Elites

1. Nonnutritive sweeteners are not metabolized by microorganisms and do not promote dental caries. Products made with a nonnutritive sweetener can be used as frequently as 8 to 10 times per day.

• A. Both statements are true
• B. Both statements are false
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first statement is true; nonnutritive sweeteners do not promote caries. However, the second statement is false because products with nonnutritive sweeteners should still be consumed in moderation.

2. Which condition is an example of a potential cause of gastritis?

• A. bile reflux
• B. low salt intake
• C. hypophosphatasia
• D. gallstones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bile reflux is a potential cause of gastritis as it can irritate the stomach lining when bile backs up into the stomach. Choices B, C, and D do not directly cause gastritis. Low salt intake is not a common cause of gastritis. Hypophosphatasia is a rare genetic disorder affecting bone development, not the stomach. Gallstones, while related to the gallbladder, are not a direct cause of gastritis.

3. Which gluten-free food choice would be most appropriate for a patient with celiac disease?

• A. Scalloped potatoes
• B. Oatmeal
• C. Eggs
• D. Tortillas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eggs are a safe food choice for individuals with celiac disease as they are naturally gluten-free. Scalloped potatoes often contain flour in the sauce, which might contain gluten. Oatmeal can be a subject of debate due to possible cross-contamination during processing, so it might not be safe unless labeled gluten-free. Tortillas are typically made from wheat flour containing gluten, but gluten-free versions are available. However, eggs are universally gluten-free, making them the best choice for individuals with celiac disease.

4. During blood administration, what is essential for the nurse to do in order to carefully monitor for adverse reactions?

• A. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes of blood administration
• B. Stay with the client for the entire period of blood administration
• C. Run the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes
• D. Inform the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of blood administration, it's crucial for the nurse to stay with the client for the first 15 minutes. This is because most adverse reactions are likely to occur within this initial period. Monitoring the client closely during this time allows for immediate detection and response to any potential reactions. Choice B, staying with the client for the entire period of blood administration, is not typically feasible or necessary, although regular checks should be conducted. Running the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes (Choice C) is incorrect as this can actually increase the risk of adverse reactions. Informing the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction (Choice D) is an important practice, but it is not the most direct way for the nurse to monitor for adverse reactions.

5. What is the initial major sign of acute renal failure?

• A. Oliguria
• B. Hematuria
• C. Proteinuria
• D. Glycosuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is often the initial major sign of acute renal failure. This reduction in urine output indicates that the kidneys are not functioning properly. Hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (presence of protein in urine), and glycosuria (presence of glucose in urine) are not typically the initial major signs of acute renal failure. While they may be present in certain conditions, oliguria is the most common and critical indicator of acute renal failure.

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