Nursing Elites

1. Maternal malnutrition at a critical period of development may have lifelong effects on an individual's pattern of genetic expression and on the tendency to develop obesity, which is a concept known as _____.

• A. genetic determination
• B. metabolic tolerance
• C. chromosomal influence
• D. fetal programming

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fetal programming refers to the concept that maternal nutrition during critical periods of development can have long-term effects on an individual's health and risk of diseases like obesity.

2. A client who is in her second trimester of pregnancy should increase her caloric intake by how many calories during this trimester?

• A. 110 cal/day
• B. 225 cal/day
• C. 340 cal/day
• D. 450 cal/day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the second trimester of pregnancy, it is recommended that a client increases their caloric intake by around 340 calories per day to support the growing needs of both the mother and the developing fetus. This additional intake helps ensure the proper nutrition and energy levels required during this crucial stage of pregnancy. Option A (110 cal/day) is too low to meet the increased demands. Option B (225 cal/day) is also below the recommended amount. Option D (450 cal/day) is higher than necessary and could lead to excessive weight gain, which is not ideal during pregnancy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following lab values indicates the treatment is effective?

• A. Hct 43%
• B. WBC 8,000/uL
• C. Albumin 4.2 g/dL
• D. Calcium 9.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Albumin 4.2 g/dL. Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is a key indicator of nutritional status. In a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), an increase in albumin level indicates that the treatment is effective in providing adequate nutrition support. Hct (hematocrit), WBC (white blood cell count), and calcium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN in this context.

4. Where does most nutrient digestion and absorption occur?

• A. Large intestine
• B. Small intestine
• C. Stomach
• D. Mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The small intestine is the correct answer. It is the primary site for nutrient digestion and absorption in the digestive system. The small intestine plays a crucial role in breaking down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into forms that can be absorbed by the body. While the large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes, the majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine. The stomach primarily functions in the initial digestion of proteins, and the mouth begins the mechanical breakdown of food through chewing.

5. Which animal-derived food contains the most significant level of carbohydrates?

• A. Egg
• B. Beef
• C. Milk
• D. Poultry

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Milk contains the most significant level of carbohydrates among animal-derived foods. Milk and milk products supply significant quantities of carbohydrate in the form of lactose. Eggs, beef, and poultry are not significant sources of carbohydrates compared to milk. In cheese making, lactose is removed as a by-product, reducing the carbohydrate content further.

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