Nursing Elites

1. Maternal malnutrition at a critical period of development may have lifelong effects on an individual's pattern of genetic expression and on the tendency to develop obesity, which is a concept known as _____.

• A. genetic determination
• B. metabolic tolerance
• C. chromosomal influence
• D. fetal programming

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fetal programming refers to the concept that maternal nutrition during critical periods of development can have long-term effects on an individual's health and risk of diseases like obesity.

2. Nonnutritive sweeteners are not metabolized by microorganisms and do not promote dental caries. Products made with a nonnutritive sweetener can be used as frequently as 8 to 10 times per day.

• A. Both statements are true
• B. Both statements are false
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first statement is true; nonnutritive sweeteners do not promote caries. However, the second statement is false because products with nonnutritive sweeteners should still be consumed in moderation.

3. Which of the following terms describes the amount of blood ejected per heartbeat?

• A. Stroke volume
• B. Cardiac output
• C. Ejection fraction
• D. Afterload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stroke volume. Stroke volume refers to the amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle in one contraction. Choice B, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat. Choice D, Afterload, refers to the pressure or resistance that the ventricles must overcome to eject blood during systole. Therefore, in the context of the question, the term that specifically describes the amount of blood ejected per heartbeat is stroke volume.

4. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:

• A. Percussion uses only one hand, while vibration uses both hands
• B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms, while vibration gently shakes secretions loose
• C. In both percussion and vibration, the hands are not on top of each other, and hand action is not in tune with the client's breath
• D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.

5. When is Prevident indicated?

• A. High caries risk
• B. Crown and bridge work
• C. Orthodontic decalcification
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.

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