Nursing Elites

1. Kimberly is having a checkup before starting kindergarten. The nurse asks her to do the “finger-to-nose test.” What is the purpose of this test?

• A. Deep tendon reflexes
• B. Cerebellar function
• C. Sensory discrimination
• D. Ability to follow directions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The finger-to-nose test assesses cerebellar function, which is responsible for balance and coordination. The test evaluates how well the cerebellum controls motor functions and coordination. Choice A, deep tendon reflexes, is incorrect because this test does not assess reflexes but rather cerebellar function. Choice C, sensory discrimination, is incorrect as this test focuses on motor function rather than sensory abilities. Choice D, ability to follow directions, is incorrect since the test primarily assesses motor coordination and not cognitive skills related to following instructions.

2. The nurse is caring for an infant who was born 24 hr ago to a mother who received no prenatal care. The infant is a poor feeder but sucks avidly on his hands. Clinical manifestations also include hyperactive reflexes, tremors, sneezing, and a high-pitched shrill cry. What does the nurse consider as a possible diagnosis for this infant?

• A. Seizure disorder
• B. Narcotic withdrawal
• C. Placental insufficiency
• D. Meconium aspiration syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the infant's symptoms are consistent with narcotic withdrawal. Infants exposed to drugs in utero may display withdrawal symptoms starting around 12 to 24 hours post-birth. The presentation often includes hyperactive reflexes, tremors, sneezing, high-pitched shrill cry, poor feeding, and sucking avidly on hands. Signs such as loose stools, tachycardia, fever, projectile vomiting, sneezing, and generalized sweating are common. These symptoms are not indicative of a seizure disorder. Placental insufficiency typically leads to a small-for-gestational-age child, which is not mentioned in the scenario. Meconium aspiration syndrome primarily presents with respiratory distress, not the symptoms described in this case.

3. Congenital defects of the genitourinary tract, such as hypospadias, are usually repaired as early as possible to accomplish what?

• A. Minimize separation anxiety
• B. Prevent urinary complications.
• C. Increase acceptance of hospitalization.
• D. Promote development of normal body image.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Early repair of congenital genitourinary defects like hypospadias is important to promote a normal body image and avoid psychological issues as the child grows. It also helps prevent urinary complications and allows for normal development.

4. Where would nonpathologic cyanosis normally be present in the newborn shortly after birth?

• A. Feet and hands
• B. Bridge of nose
• C. Circumoral area
• D. Mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nonpathologic cyanosis in newborns shortly after birth is typically present in the feet and hands, known as acrocyanosis. This is a normal finding due to the immature peripheral circulation in newborns. Cyanosis of the bridge of the nose, circumoral area, and mucous membranes indicates generalized cyanosis, which suggests a potential underlying distress or major abnormality. Therefore, choice A is correct as it describes the expected location for nonpathologic cyanosis in newborns, while choices B, C, and D represent areas associated with abnormal cyanosis.

5. What is an appropriate screening test for hearing that the nurse can administer to a 5-year-old child?

• A. Rinne test
• B. Weber test
• C. Pure tone audiometry
• D. Eliciting the startle reflex

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pure tone audiometry is an appropriate and effective screening test for hearing in a 5-year-old child, helping to assess the ability to hear various frequencies and volumes.

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