Nursing Elites

1. Kimberly is having a checkup before starting kindergarten. The nurse asks her to do the “finger-to-nose test.” What is the purpose of this test?

• A. Deep tendon reflexes
• B. Cerebellar function
• C. Sensory discrimination
• D. Ability to follow directions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The finger-to-nose test assesses cerebellar function, which is responsible for balance and coordination. The test evaluates how well the cerebellum controls motor functions and coordination. Choice A, deep tendon reflexes, is incorrect because this test does not assess reflexes but rather cerebellar function. Choice C, sensory discrimination, is incorrect as this test focuses on motor function rather than sensory abilities. Choice D, ability to follow directions, is incorrect since the test primarily assesses motor coordination and not cognitive skills related to following instructions.

2. The parent of a 1-month-old infant voices concern about the infant’s respirations. The parent states the respirations are rapid and irregular. Which information should the nurse provide?

• A. The normal respiratory rate for an infant at this age is between 20 and 30 breaths per minute.
• B. The respirations of a 1-month-old infant are normally irregular and periodically pause.
• C. An infant at this age should have regular respirations.
• D. The irregularity of the infant's respirations is concerning; I will notify the health care provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Irregular respirations with periodic pauses are normal in a 1-month-old infant. Choice A is incorrect because the normal respiratory rate for an infant at this age is higher than the range provided. Choice C is incorrect as irregular respirations are expected in infants. Choice D is not appropriate as irregular respirations with periodic pauses are a normal finding in young infants and do not necessarily indicate a concern that requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider.

3. An infant with short bowel syndrome is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The practitioner has added continuous enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. The nurse recognizes this as important for which reason?

• A. Wean the infant from TPN gradually
• B. Stimulate adaptation of the small intestine
• C. Provide additional nutrients that cannot be included in the TPN
• D. Offer parents encouragement that the child is close to discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Continuous enteral feedings help stimulate the small intestine's adaptation in short bowel syndrome, promoting better nutrient absorption and eventually reducing reliance on TPN. This approach is crucial for long-term management and improving the child's prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because weaning off TPN typically occurs gradually over time, not the next day. Choice C is incorrect because TPN can be adjusted to provide necessary nutrients, and enteral feedings are mainly used to stimulate intestinal function. Choice D is incorrect as the addition of enteral feedings does not necessarily indicate imminent discharge; it primarily focuses on enhancing intestinal adaptation and reducing reliance on TPN.

4. Following treatment for iron deficiency anemia, the physician orders lab tests. Which lab value would indicate an improvement in the child’s condition?

• A. Low hemoglobin
• B. Normal platelet count
• C. High reticulocyte count
• D. Low hematocrit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A high reticulocyte count indicates that the bone marrow is producing more red blood cells, which is a sign of recovery from anemia as the body replenishes its iron stores and increases hemoglobin levels. Low hemoglobin (Choice A) would indicate ongoing anemia rather than improvement. A normal platelet count (Choice B) and low hematocrit (Choice D) are not specific indicators of improvement in iron deficiency anemia.

5. A child is admitted in acute renal failure (ARF). Therapeutic management to rapidly provoke a flow of urine includes the administration of what medication?

• A. Propranolol (Inderal)
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol) or furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Sodium, chloride, and potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mannitol and furosemide are diuretics commonly used to induce diuresis in acute renal failure, helping to provoke urine flow and manage fluid overload. Calcium gluconate and electrolyte supplementation are used for other specific conditions and not primarily for diuresis.

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