in order to best reduce the potential for risk the development of which type of atmosphere is needed
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. To best reduce the potential for risk, what type of atmosphere is needed to be developed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Patient-focused.' When aiming to reduce the potential for risk, it is essential to prioritize the needs and well-being of the patients. Creating a patient-focused atmosphere helps ensure that decisions and actions are made with the patients' best interests in mind. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while nurses, physicians, and families play essential roles in healthcare, when it comes to reducing risks, the primary focus should be on the patients themselves.

2. When planning care for a client with vision loss, which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care to assist the client with feeding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client has vision loss, arranging food in a consistent pattern on the plate can help them locate and identify different food items more easily. This intervention promotes independence and allows the client to feed themselves with greater ease. Thicking liquids on the tray, providing small-handled utensils, or assigning a staff member to feed the client may not directly address the client's need for assistance with feeding due to vision loss. Thicking liquids is more related to swallowing difficulties, providing small-handled utensils can be helpful for clients with limited dexterity, and assigning a staff member to feed the client may not promote independence.

3. When should the nurse initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct time for the nurse to initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure is as soon as the client's condition is stable. Discharge planning should begin early to ensure a smooth transition and continuity of care. While involving the client's family in the planning process is crucial, the primary focus should be on starting the preparations for discharge once the client's immediate health concerns are addressed and their condition is stable. Waiting for a team conference or after consulting with the family may delay the planning process, which is not ideal in ensuring a timely and effective discharge plan.

4. In the grievance process, a nurse disagrees with statements made by a physician about performance and talks to the nurse manager. Which step in the process is this?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First. In the grievance process, the initial step involves the nurse talking to the nurse manager to address the issue informally. Subsequently, step two entails filing a written appeal to the director of nursing or designee. Step three involves a formal meeting with the employee, agent, grievance chairperson, nursing administrator, and director of human resources. The final step, step four, is arbitration, which is initiated when no mutually acceptable solutions can be reached by the involved parties. Therefore, the nurse talking to the nurse manager about the disagreement is the first step in the grievance process.

5. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.' Nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who are qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs have the autonomy to provide care independently. Choice C is incorrect as NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as specializing in a specific area of nursing practice refers to a different aspect of advanced nursing roles, such as becoming a clinical nurse specialist.

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