Nursing Elites

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering childhood vaccinations
• B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
• C. Routine screening for hypertension
• D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.

3. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?

• A. Provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician
• B. Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently
• C. Assist with administrative tasks in a healthcare setting
• D. Specialize in a specific area of nursing practice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.' Nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who are qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs have the autonomy to provide care independently. Choice C is incorrect as NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as specializing in a specific area of nursing practice refers to a different aspect of advanced nursing roles, such as becoming a clinical nurse specialist.

4. A nurse is focusing on improving the ability to multitask without losing focus and to turn problems into opportunities. Which of the following leadership theories describes the nurse�s focus?

• A. Emotional intelligence
• B. Motivation theory
• C. Situational leadership theory
• D. Transformational leadership theory

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Transformational leadership theory describes the nurse�s focus.

5. What is the main concern with collective bargaining?

• A. Create tension among nurses.
• B. Reform health care.
• C. Secure economic security.
• D. Unite the nurses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main concern with collective bargaining is that it can create tension among nurses. The bargaining process may lead to divisions between staff nurses and management, rather than uniting them. This tension can arise from differing priorities, goals, or interests between the two groups, potentially impacting the effectiveness of the bargaining process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the primary focus of the concern is on the potential negative impact on nurse relationships, not on reforming healthcare, ensuring economic security, or uniting nurses.

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