ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?
- A. Conflict suppression
- B. Resolution aftermath
- C. Antecedent conditions
- D. Manifest behavior
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.
2. What is typically the first sign that a healthcare professional with a substance abuse problem will exhibit?
- A. Avoidance
- B. Bargaining
- C. Denial
- D. Regression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Denial. When healthcare professionals have substance abuse problems, denial is often the initial sign they exhibit. Denial involves minimizing or refusing to acknowledge the issue, making it difficult to recognize and address the substance abuse problem. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoidance, bargaining, and regression are not typically the first signs displayed by healthcare professionals with substance abuse problems. By identifying denial early on, healthcare professionals can take the necessary steps to seek help and overcome substance abuse issues.
3. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?
- A. Recency error
- B. Leniency error
- C. Halo error
- D. Absolute judgment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.
4. In the scenario where a family member slips on the wet floor and hits her head, what hospital process requires completion of an incident report?
- A. Risk management
- B. Outcome management
- C. Quality management
- D. Peer review
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In healthcare settings, completing an incident report is a crucial aspect of risk management. Risk management aims to identify, assess, and mitigate risks to prevent harm to patients, visitors, or staff. Incident reports provide valuable data for analyzing events, implementing corrective actions, and improving patient safety within the healthcare facility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because outcome management focuses on achieving desired results, quality management concentrates on maintaining high standards of care, and peer review involves evaluating the performance of healthcare providers, none of which directly relate to the completion of an incident report due to an accident.
5. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Droplet precautions
- B. Protective environment
- C. Airborne precautions
- D. Contact precautions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. Contact precautions are used when there is a risk of transmission of infections through direct or indirect contact. In this scenario, the client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, indicating a potential for infection transmission through contact. Droplet precautions (choice A) are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Protective environment (choice B) is used for immunocompromised clients. Airborne precautions (choice C) are used for infections transmitted through small droplets that remain in the air, like tuberculosis. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should initiate contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection.
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