Nursing Elites

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. A nurse is planning care of an adolescent who is postoperative following a lumbar laminectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Limit the adolescent's visitors.
• B. Select the adolescent's food choices.
• C. Encourage the adolescent's guardian to assist with personal hygiene.
• D. Allow the adolescent to make decisions regarding their daily routine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because after a lumbar laminectomy, the adolescent may need assistance with personal hygiene due to limited mobility and pain. Encouraging the guardian to assist with personal hygiene ensures proper care and prevents complications. Choice A is incorrect as limiting visitors may affect the adolescent's emotional well-being and support system. Choice B is incorrect as the adolescent should have autonomy in selecting their food choices as long as they align with their dietary restrictions post-surgery. Choice D is incorrect as the adolescent may need guidance and support in decision-making during the postoperative period.

3. What is the primary focus of a patient-centered care model?

• A. Cost reduction
• B. Healthcare provider satisfaction
• C. Patient satisfaction
• D. Quality assurance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary focus of a patient-centered care model is on patient satisfaction. This approach emphasizes providing care that is personalized to meet the unique needs and preferences of each patient, fostering a collaborative and respectful partnership between healthcare providers and patients to achieve better health outcomes. While cost reduction (choice A) can be a byproduct of improved outcomes, it is not the primary focus. Healthcare provider satisfaction (choice B) is important but not the primary focus in patient-centered care. Quality assurance (choice D) is crucial but is secondary to patient satisfaction in a patient-centered care model.

4. Which action by a patient indicates that the home health nurse�s teaching about glargine and regular insulin has been successful?

• A. The patient administers the glargine 30 minutes before each meal
• B. The patient�s family prefills the syringes with the mix of insulins weekly.
• C. The patient draws up the regular insulin and then the glargine in the same syringe.
• D. The patient disposes of the open vials of glargine and regular insulin after 4 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

5. What is the primary focus of transitional care?

• A. To improve clinical outcomes
• B. To manage chronic diseases
• C. To facilitate smooth transitions between care settings
• D. To support family caregivers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary focus of transitional care is to facilitate smooth transitions between care settings. While improving clinical outcomes and managing chronic diseases are important aspects of healthcare, the main goal of transitional care is to ensure patients move smoothly between different care settings such as hospitals, rehabilitation centers, and home care. Supporting family caregivers is also essential but not the primary focus of transitional care.

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