Nursing Elites

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity?

• A. Blood pressure screening
• B. Administering medications
• C. Developing a care plan
• D. Providing rehabilitation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, blood pressure screening. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat conditions early to prevent their progression. Blood pressure screening helps in early detection of hypertension, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of secondary prevention activities. Administering medications (B) can be part of treatment after a condition is diagnosed, developing a care plan (C) is more related to organizing and coordinating care rather than prevention, and providing rehabilitation (D) focuses on recovery and improvement post-diagnosis rather than early detection and prevention.

3. Characteristics that an interviewer will be most interested in when selecting a new staff will be: (EXCEPT)

• A. Your confidence in your clinical skills.
• B. How many hours of overtime you will work.
• C. Your ability to work as a team member.
• D. Your clinical competence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When selecting new staff, interviewers are primarily interested in candidates' confidence in clinical skills, ability to work as a team member, and clinical competence. They are not concerned with how many hours of overtime a candidate is willing to work. Overtime hours may be important at times, but it is not a characteristic that an interviewer would prioritize when selecting new staff. Choices A, C, and D are essential qualities that interviewers look for in potential staff as they contribute to providing professional nursing care.

4. How has advanced technology in health care, such as integrated health records, benefited nurses?

• A. Skip the assessment step of the nursing process
• B. Order medications
• C. Take blood samples
• D. Track patients' vital signs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Advanced technology in health care, like integrated health records, has enabled nurses to efficiently track patients' vital signs. This capability helps nurses monitor patients' health status closely and make informed decisions regarding their care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because technology does not replace the vital role of nurses in conducting assessments, ordering medications (typically done by prescribers), or collecting blood samples.

5. Which of the following describes the ability to enter into a contract with an employer?

• A. Certification to contract
• B. Certification to represent
• C. Bargaining agreement
• D. Contract agreement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Certification to contract,' which refers to the process by which a union, certified by the NLRB as a bargaining agent, can enter into a contract with an employer that has been voted on by the union membership. The other choices are incorrect because 'Certification to represent' does not specifically address entering into a contract, 'Bargaining agreement' refers to the actual agreement reached through negotiation, and 'Contract agreement' is redundant, as it simply repeats the term 'contract.'

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