in dealing with conflict the nurse manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect according to filey what is this
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. Which of the following is a key component of patient-centered care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respect for patient preferences. Patient-centered care focuses on involving patients in their care decisions and respecting their preferences. Choice A, provider-centered decision making, goes against the concept of patient-centered care as it prioritizes the provider over the patient. Timely discharge, choice B, is important but not a defining component of patient-centered care. Focusing on clinical outcomes, choice D, is essential in healthcare but does not solely represent patient-centered care, which is more about personalized care and involving patients in decision-making.

3. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

4. Which of the following is one of the sources used to determine the reason for voluntary turnover?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Exit interviewing.' Exit interviews are a crucial source used to determine the reasons for voluntary turnover. During exit interviews, departing employees provide valuable insights into their reasons for leaving, which can help organizations identify areas for improvement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Following-up phone calls and benchmarking are not commonly used methods for determining the reasons behind voluntary turnover. While employee questioning can be a part of the exit interview process, the primary source mentioned in the context of voluntary turnover is exit interviewing.

5. Which theory views motivation as learning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Reinforcement. Reinforcement theory views motivation as learning through the association of behaviors with consequences. Choice B, Process, is too vague and does not specifically relate motivation to learning. Choice C, Operant, is a type of conditioning that focuses on voluntary behavior and its consequences, not motivation as learning. Choice D, Conditioning, is a general term that does not directly connect motivation with learning.

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