Nursing Elites

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. How can a staff nurse recognize they are experiencing burnout? (EXCEPT)

• A. They are spending more time talking to staff on other units.
• B. Staff is questioning their clinical judgment.
• C. They sleep longer hours, sometimes coming in late to work.
• D. They are drinking alcohol more frequently to relax.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Recognizing burnout is essential to maintaining quality patient care. Spending more time talking to staff on other units is a common practice and does not necessarily indicate burnout. On the other hand, staff questioning their clinical judgment, sleeping longer hours or coming in late to work, and resorting to alcohol to relax are signs of burnout. These behaviors can impact patient care and indicate the professional is struggling to cope with stressors.

3. The nurse manager can use several strategies to improve communication when giving directions. Asking the subordinate to repeat the instructions would be which of the following strategies?

• A. Verifying through feedback
• B. Follow-up communication
• C. Getting positive attention
• D. Knowing the context of the instruction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asking the subordinate to repeat the instructions is a strategy known as verifying through feedback. This approach ensures that the receiver has understood the request correctly. Choice B, 'Follow-up communication,' refers to checking in after the initial communication, not necessarily asking for repetition. Choice C, 'Getting positive attention,' is unrelated to confirming understanding. Choice D, 'Knowing the context of the instruction,' deals with understanding the background or reasons behind the instructions, not confirming comprehension.

4. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA)?

• A. Identify the person responsible for an error
• B. Determine who should be disciplined
• C. Discover the underlying causes of an error
• D. Evaluate the effectiveness of a new policy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Discover the underlying causes of an error.' Root cause analysis (RCA) focuses on identifying the fundamental reason(s) that led to an error or problem rather than placing blame on individuals. Choice A and B are incorrect as RCA is not about pinpointing a specific person to blame or determining disciplinary actions. Choice D is also incorrect as the primary goal of RCA is not to evaluate policy effectiveness but to uncover the root causes of issues for effective problem-solving.

5. What is the primary focus of Lean methodology in healthcare?

• A. Reduce healthcare costs
• B. Enhance patient satisfaction
• C. Increase patient throughput
• D. Standardize care processes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Standardize care processes. Lean methodology in healthcare focuses on standardizing care processes to improve efficiency and reduce waste. While reducing healthcare costs and enhancing patient satisfaction are important goals in healthcare, the primary focus of Lean methodology is to standardize care processes to ensure consistent, high-quality care delivery. Increasing patient throughput may be a byproduct of implementing Lean principles but is not the primary focus.

Similar Questions