in dealing with conflict the nurse manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect according to filey what is this
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ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. Which of the following is likely to facilitate union activity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because according to a study by Bilchik (2000), organizations are more likely to unionize if there is a belief that low wages cause job dissatisfaction. Choices A and B focus on effective communication and listening, which may actually prevent union activity by addressing employee concerns directly. Choice D, the belief that supervisors are not understanding of unionizing, may lead to dissatisfaction but doesn't directly facilitate union activity as the belief that low wages cause job dissatisfaction does.

3. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.

4. What is the primary purpose of clinical pathways in healthcare?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary purpose of clinical pathways in healthcare is to provide individualized care. While clinical pathways do involve standardizing treatment plans, their main goal is to tailor these plans to the individual needs of patients. This customization ensures that patients receive care that is specific to their condition and requirements, rather than a one-size-fits-all approach. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although reducing hospital readmissions, standardizing care, and streamlining care processes can be benefits of clinical pathways, they are not the primary purpose. The main focus is on delivering personalized treatment paths to enhance patient outcomes.

5. If a task is delegated to someone, they need to be granted the ___________ to complete the task.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Authority When a task is delegated, it is essential to grant the individual the authority to complete it. Authority refers to the power or right to give commands, make decisions, and enforce obedience. Planning (choice B), organizing (choice C), and controlling (choice D) are important aspects of management but do not directly address the need for authorization to carry out a delegated task.

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