Nursing Elites

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. Which of the following best describes decertification?

• A. Encourage union affiliation
• B. Change union affiliation
• C. Reward union affiliation
• D. Empower union affiliation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Decertification is the process of removing or changing union affiliation. Choosing option B, 'Change union affiliation,' correctly reflects this definition. Option A, 'Encourage union affiliation,' is incorrect as decertification is not about promoting union membership but rather altering it. Option C, 'Reward union affiliation,' is incorrect as decertification does not involve rewarding union membership. Option D, 'Empower union affiliation,' is incorrect as decertification does not empower union membership but rather modifies or eliminates it.

3. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy in public health?

• A. Screening for diabetes
• B. Vaccination programs
• C. Emergency response planning
• D. Chronic disease management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaccination programs are considered a primary prevention strategy in public health because they aim to prevent the occurrence of diseases before they occur. Screening for diabetes (choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy that aims to detect and treat the disease early. Emergency response planning (choice C) is more focused on preparedness and response rather than preventing the initial occurrence of health issues. Chronic disease management (choice D) involves treating and controlling diseases that have already developed, making it a tertiary prevention strategy rather than primary.

4. Which leadership style is most effective in a crisis situation?

• A. Democratic
• B. Autocratic
• C. Transformational
• D. Laissez-faire

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An autocratic leadership style is most effective in a crisis situation because it allows for quick decision-making without the need for extensive consultation or deliberation. In a crisis, immediate and decisive actions are often required to address the situation effectively. Democratic leadership, on the other hand, may slow down the decision-making process due to the need for consensus and input from team members. Transformational leadership focuses on inspiring and motivating followers, which may not always be as effective in a crisis where urgent actions are needed. Laissez-faire leadership, characterized by a hands-off approach, is generally ineffective in crisis situations as it lacks the necessary direction and guidance required to navigate through the challenges efficiently.

5. Who is the best person to describe the job to an applicant?

• A. Previous employee
• B. Human resource manager
• C. Nursing manager
• D. Chief operating officer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nursing manager is the most suitable person to describe the job to an applicant because they are directly involved in the day-to-day operations and requirements of the position. They have firsthand knowledge of the job responsibilities, expectations, and qualifications needed. Human resource managers are involved in recruitment but may not have the detailed operational knowledge that a nursing manager possesses. A previous employee may provide insights into the work environment but may not have a comprehensive understanding of the current job requirements. The chief operating officer oversees the organization's overall operations and strategy, so they may not have the specific details about the job to effectively describe it to an applicant.

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