ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?
- A. Conflict suppression
- B. Resolution aftermath
- C. Antecedent conditions
- D. Manifest behavior
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.
2. What innate tendency influences staff to act in a certain way?
- A. Instinct
- B. Appreciation
- C. Control
- D. Esteem
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Instinct. Instinct theory suggests that behaviors are influenced by inherited or innate tendencies, guiding individuals to act in specific ways without conscious reasoning. In the context of staff behavior, instinct can play a significant role in shaping their actions and responses. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Appreciation, control, and esteem are external factors that may influence staff behavior, but in this context, the question specifically asks for an innate tendency that influences staff to act in a certain way, which aligns more closely with instinctive tendencies rather than external factors like appreciation, control, or esteem.
3. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?
- A. Administering immunizations
- B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
- C. Routine health screenings
- D. Health education campaigns
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, physical therapy for stroke patients. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a disease or condition. Administering immunizations (choice A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Routine health screenings (choice C) are part of secondary prevention to detect diseases early. Health education campaigns (choice D) typically fall under primary prevention by educating and promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.
4. What is the primary role of a nurse in a patient-centered medical home (PCMH)?
- A. Coordinate patient care
- B. Administer treatments
- C. Provide health education
- D. Conduct research
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary role of a nurse in a patient-centered medical home (PCMH) is to coordinate patient care. Nurses in PCMH settings focus on ensuring continuity of care, managing transitions between different healthcare providers, and facilitating communication among the healthcare team and the patient. Administering treatments, providing health education, and conducting research are important aspects of nursing practice but are not the primary role of a nurse in a patient-centered medical home.
5. Which of the following is an example of a macro-level health policy?
- A. Local health ordinances
- B. State licensing regulations
- C. National healthcare legislation
- D. Institutional policies
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is national healthcare legislation. This type of policy operates at a broad level, influencing healthcare delivery and financing across an entire nation. It sets overarching frameworks and regulations that impact various aspects of the healthcare system on a large scale, affecting a wide population rather than specific localities or institutions. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of macro-level health policy. Local health ordinances pertain to specific areas or communities, state licensing regulations focus on a state level, and institutional policies are internal regulations of a particular healthcare facility.
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