in assessing the clients chest which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

2. When is aspirin most effective when taken?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aspirin is best absorbed on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. Taking it with cold water helps in its quick absorption. Option B is incorrect because taking aspirin on a full stomach can delay its absorption. Option C is incorrect as fruit juice may not provide the ideal conditions for absorption. Option D is incorrect as taking aspirin first thing in the morning may not ensure an empty stomach.

3. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct anatomical position for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis is the second intercostal space, right sternal border. This is where the aortic valve is best auscultated, and the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard at the second intercostal space on the right side of the sternum.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

5. The nurse is preparing a postoperative nursing care plan for the client recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Establishing rapport with the client is crucial in postoperative care to create a trusting relationship, reduce embarrassment, and enhance comfort during assessments. Encouraging the client to lie in the lithotomy position is not recommended after a hemorrhoidectomy as it can be uncomfortable and may disrupt wound healing. Milking the tube inserted during surgery is not a standard practice and could lead to complications. Digitally dilating the rectal sphincter is not indicated post-hemorrhoidectomy and can cause harm to the client.

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