ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.
2. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, if committed by a nurse, indicates an error?
- A. Specimen is collected after meals
- B. The nurse puts the clingiest tablet into a test tube
- C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
- D. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When conducting a Clinitest for testing urinary glucose levels, it is essential to add the correct amounts of urine and Clinitest reagent as instructed. Adding more water than urine could dilute the sample, leading to inaccurate test results. It's important to follow the correct ratio of drops specified in the instructions for an accurate reading.
3. Which of the following grains is acceptable for someone with celiac disease?
- A. Rice
- B. Rye
- C. Wheat
- D. Barley
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rice. Rice is a gluten-free grain, making it safe for individuals with celiac disease. Choices B, C, and D (Rye, Wheat, and Barley) contain gluten and are not suitable for individuals with celiac disease, as gluten can trigger adverse reactions in their bodies.
4. Identifying the strengths and weaknesses in the nursing care plan is part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the patient's nursing care needs?
- A. Evaluation
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Assessment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Evaluation involves assessing the effectiveness of the nursing care plan by identifying its strengths and weaknesses. This step helps in determining if the plan is meeting the patient's needs. Choice B (Planning) is incorrect because planning involves developing the nursing care plan based on the assessment of the patient's needs. Choice C (Implementation) is incorrect as it refers to putting the nursing care plan into action. Choice D (Assessment) is incorrect as assessment is the initial step in the nursing process, involving data collection and analysis to identify the patient's needs.
5. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?
- A. Accountability
- B. Personal/professional development
- C. Individual training
- D. Military appearance/physical condition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Personal/professional development.' Educating personnel on the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) falls under the realm of personal/professional development, as it aims to enhance the knowledge and skills of individuals regarding military laws and regulations. Choice A, 'Accountability,' focuses more on responsibility and answerability rather than education. Choice C, 'Individual training,' is more specific to skill development and job-related learning rather than legal education. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' pertains to maintaining physical standards and appearance, which is unrelated to educating personnel on UCMJ.
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