in assessing the clients chest which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

2. The client is recovering from a percutaneous renal biopsy. Which data indicate that the client is complying with client teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lying flat in the supine position for 12 hours after a renal biopsy helps prevent bleeding, which is crucial for the client's recovery. This position aids in applying pressure to the biopsy site, reducing the risk of bleeding and ensuring optimal healing. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to compliance with client teaching after a renal biopsy. Continuing oral fluids restriction, changing the dressing, or activating a patient-controlled analgesia pump are not specific instructions aimed at promoting recovery and preventing complications post renal biopsy.

3. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

4. Why are hospital patients at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions than they used to be?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hospitalized patients are at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions because they are more acutely ill, often having multiple conditions and treatments that increase the risk of such interactions. Choice B is incorrect as hospital routines interfering with medication timing are not directly related to drug-nutrient interactions. Choice C is incorrect as the toxicity and side effects of drugs do not necessarily relate to interactions with nutrients. Choice D is incorrect as shared responsibility for monitoring does not directly contribute to the increased risk of drug-nutrient interactions in hospitalized patients.

5. Which corps-level hospital is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is GH (General Hospital), a 296-bed facility that offers care for all categories of patients. FSB, CSH, and FH do not typically refer to hospitals at the corps level and are not specifically known for providing comprehensive care.

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