Nursing Elites

1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

2. When measuring the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema, what position is best to ensure accurate measurements?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Sitting
• C. Standing
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When measuring the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema, the best position to ensure accurate and consistent measurements is the dorsal recumbent position. This position allows the legs to be positioned comfortably, and the individual is lying on their back with legs extended, facilitating accurate measurement of the circumference without the influence of gravity. Sitting, standing, and supine positions may not provide optimal conditions for accurate leg circumference measurements, particularly in clients with bipedal edema where positioning and consistency are crucial. Sitting and standing positions may not allow for consistent leg positioning and could introduce errors due to the effects of gravity on the fluid distribution. The supine position, while similar to dorsal recumbent, may not be as comfortable for the client and could still be influenced by gravity when measuring leg circumference.

3. The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?

• A. Collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another
• B. Collect three (3) early morning, clean voided urine specimens
• C. Collect the specimens after the HCP massages the prostate
• D. Collect a routine urine specimen for analysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To obtain accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine, the nurse should instruct the patient to collect the first 15 mL of urine in one container and the subsequent 50 mL in another. This method ensures that the specimens are separated appropriately for analysis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because collecting three early morning urine specimens, massaging the prostate, or collecting a routine urine specimen would not provide the specific separation of urethral and bladder urine required for this particular test.

4. Who is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on military occupational specialty-specific medical training?

• A. Physician
• B. Physician Assistant
• C. Combat medic
• D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Physician Assistant is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on their military occupational specialty-specific medical training. While physicians are highly trained medical professionals, in the context of combat health support, the Physician Assistant is typically the frontline provider who directly applies their specific military medical training to make decisions. Combat medics and combat lifesavers may provide critical care in the field, but they do not have the same level of training and scope of practice as a Physician Assistant in this context, making them less likely to be the first to make medically substantiated decisions.

5. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Hemoptysis
• D. Deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased urine output. When vegetative lesions from the mitral valve embolize, they can block blood flow to the kidneys, leading to renal infarction. This can result in decreased urine output. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage of an artery in the lungs, not directly related to embolization from the mitral valve. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood from the respiratory tract, which is not a direct consequence of embolization from the mitral valve. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, unrelated to embolization from the mitral valve.

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