ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.
2. The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess the client’s vital signs
- B. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle
- C. Begin iced saline lavage
- D. A, B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions for a client presenting with acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood are to assess the client’s vital signs and start an IV with an 18-gauge needle. Assessing vital signs helps in determining the client's current condition and response to treatment, while starting an IV is crucial for administering medications and fluids. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to stabilize the client and address potential bleeding. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices, making option D the most appropriate answer.
3. Which dietary change is most beneficial for a patient with hypertension?
- A. Increased sodium intake
- B. Decreased potassium intake
- C. Increased fiber intake
- D. Increased cholesterol intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased fiber intake. A diet high in fiber is beneficial for patients with hypertension as it helps lower blood pressure. Increasing fiber intake can aid in managing hypertension by promoting heart health and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension as it can elevate blood pressure. Decreasing potassium intake is also not advised as potassium is essential for regulating blood pressure. Lastly, increasing cholesterol intake is detrimental for hypertension as it can contribute to cardiovascular issues and worsen the condition.
4. The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?
- A. Bone marrow transplant
- B. Splenectomy
- C. Frequent blood transfusions
- D. Liver biopsy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Splenectomy. Splenectomy is the treatment of choice for hereditary spherocytosis. By removing the spleen, the excessive destruction of red blood cells is reduced, preventing hemolysis and improving anemia. Bone marrow transplant (A) is not a standard treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Frequent blood transfusions (C) may temporarily address anemia but do not treat the underlying cause. Liver biopsy (D) is not indicated as a primary treatment for hereditary spherocytosis.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypomagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.
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