Nursing Elites

1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

2. Which hospital level is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is "GH" (General Hospital), which is a 296-bed facility providing comprehensive care for all categories of patients. Choice A, FSB, is incorrect as it does not denote a hospital level. Choice B, CSH, is incorrect as it does not specify a 296-bed facility. Choice D, FH, is incorrect as it does not indicate a hospital level or capacity.

3. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

• A. Platelets
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.

4. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

• A. Constipation
• B. Dizziness
• C. Headache
• D. B, C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client with a history of atherosclerosis and notes elevated cholesterol levels. Which statement by the client indicates the nurse should plan follow-up instruction on a low-cholesterol diet?

• A. ''I take an omega-3 supplement daily.''
• B. ''I cook my food with canola oil.''
• C. ''I eat three eggs for breakfast each morning.''
• D. ''I flavor my meat with lemon juice.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating three eggs daily increases cholesterol intake, which could exacerbate atherosclerosis. Omega-3 supplements, cooking with canola oil, and flavoring meat with lemon juice do not significantly impact cholesterol levels compared to consuming three eggs daily. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client to reduce egg consumption to improve cholesterol levels.

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