in assessing the clients chest which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

2. For a patient on lithium therapy, which dietary recommendation is essential?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase sodium intake. For patients on lithium therapy, maintaining consistent sodium intake is crucial to avoid fluctuations in drug levels. Increasing caffeine intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can interfere with lithium levels. While protein intake (choice C) is important for overall health, it is not specifically essential for patients on lithium therapy. Similarly, increasing fiber intake (choice D) is beneficial but not a primary concern for patients on lithium therapy.

3. The nurse enters a client’s room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client’s record and notes that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s intention to leave the hospital. This is important to ensure that the client’s care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is incorrect as involving the family without proper assessment or intervention could violate the client's autonomy. Option B is incorrect because it does not involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the client's rights to make decisions about their own care.

4. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Personal/professional development.' Educating personnel on the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) falls under the realm of personal/professional development, as it aims to enhance the knowledge and skills of individuals regarding military laws and regulations. Choice A, 'Accountability,' focuses more on responsibility and answerability rather than education. Choice C, 'Individual training,' is more specific to skill development and job-related learning rather than legal education. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' pertains to maintaining physical standards and appearance, which is unrelated to educating personnel on UCMJ.

5. What instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This instruction is crucial for managing Raynaud’s phenomenon as it helps prevent vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is not directly related to managing Raynaud’s phenomenon. Choice D is also irrelevant as direct sunlight exposure does not typically worsen symptoms of Raynaud’s phenomenon.

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