Nursing Elites

1. If bleeding continues after delivery of the placenta using management, the FIRST thing you should do is call for help and:

• A. Massage the uterus
• B. Insert a urinary catheter
• C. Start an IV
• D. Check the placenta to ensure completeness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum hemorrhage, massaging the uterus is the initial step to promote uterine contractions, which can help control bleeding by compressing the blood vessels. This action can help prevent further blood loss and stabilize the patient's condition. Calling for help is essential to ensure timely assistance, but taking immediate action by massaging the uterus is crucial in managing postpartum bleeding.

2. What is the primary significance of community involvement in health promotion?

• A. Ensures cultural appropriateness of programs.
• B. Enhances program sustainability.
• C. Increases the relevance of health interventions.
• D. Builds trust within the community.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Community involvement in health promotion is crucial as it helps build trust within the community. When community members are actively engaged, there is a higher level of trust in the interventions, leading to better acceptance and effectiveness of health programs.

3. Which fluid is used in the management of gastrointestinal tract (GIT) loss and burns?

• A. Ringer's lactate
• B. Normal saline
• C. Dextrose
• D. Blood

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ringer's lactate is the preferred fluid for managing gastrointestinal tract (GIT) losses and burns due to its balanced electrolyte composition. It helps replace lost fluids and electrolytes, making it an ideal choice for resuscitation in such scenarios. Normal saline is commonly used for volume resuscitation but may not be the best choice for these specific conditions. Dextrose is a source of glucose and is not typically used as the primary fluid for GIT losses and burns. Blood transfusion is indicated for specific situations like severe hemorrhage or anemia but is not the primary fluid for GIT losses and burns.

4. Which best describes a key goal of secondary prevention?

• A. Preventing the onset of disease
• B. Detecting diseases early
• C. Managing chronic conditions
• D. Improving quality of life

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The key goal of secondary prevention is to detect diseases early before they progress to advanced stages. By identifying diseases at an early stage, healthcare providers can intervene promptly, initiate treatment, and potentially improve patient outcomes. This approach aims to prevent complications and reduce the impact of the disease on an individual's health and well-being.

5. When working with moms and babies from diverse backgrounds in the community, what is a necessary competence for a public health nurse to have self-awareness and humility?

• A. I am confident in my ability to teach the new mom about all the necessary aspects of evidence-based newborn care before the baby is born.
• B. I often notice that newly expectant moms underestimate the challenges of caring for a new baby, and I emphasize this to them.
• C. Sometimes, young moms lack knowledge about self-care, and I try to correct their behavior promptly.
• D. I understand that I may not always be perfect with my patients, but I acknowledge this openly and listen to their feedback.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Self-awareness and humility are vital qualities for a public health nurse. Option D demonstrates these qualities by acknowledging personal fallibility and actively engaging with patients to address any shortcomings. This approach fosters trust and open communication, essential for providing effective care across diverse cultural backgrounds.

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