for which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team rrt be most appropriate

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3

1. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.

2. The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. What is the correct order of basic CPR steps?

A. Ensure the scene is safe, assess responsiveness, call for help, begin chest compressions, give two rescue breaths
B. Give two rescue breaths
C. Look, listen, and feel for breathing
D. Begin chest compressions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR steps is as follows: first, ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess the individual's responsiveness. After confirming the need for help, start chest compressions, then provide two rescue breaths. Option B, 'Give two rescue breaths,' is incorrect as chest compressions should be initiated before giving rescue breaths. Option C, 'Look, listen, and feel for breathing,' is also incorrect as immediate chest compressions are crucial in CPR. Option D, 'Begin chest compressions,' is partially correct but misses the crucial initial steps of ensuring scene safety and assessing responsiveness.

3. In which situation(s) does the nurse act as a client advocate?

A. Pulling the curtain around the client’s bed while changing a dressing
B. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client
C. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only
D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the situations listed reflect aspects of client advocacy. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity for the client, which is an essential part of advocacy. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client involves advocating for the client's needs and preferences. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only is another way the nurse advocates for the client by safeguarding their confidentiality and promoting proper communication. Choices A, B, and C all demonstrate different aspects of advocacy, making option D the correct choice.

4. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?

A. Accountability
B. Personal/professional development
C. Individual training
D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Personal/professional development. Educating personnel on UCMJ falls under the category of personal/professional development as it involves enhancing their understanding of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. This category focuses on improving individuals' knowledge and skills related to their professional roles and responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to educating personnel on UCMJ. Accountability pertains to being answerable for one's actions, individual training focuses on specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to grooming standards and fitness rather than UCMJ education.

5. What is the best way to manage a patient's intake of dietary fiber?

A. Increase intake gradually
B. Increase intake suddenly
C. Decrease intake abruptly
D. Maintain a high intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best way to manage a patient's intake of dietary fiber is to increase it gradually. This approach helps prevent gastrointestinal discomfort that may arise from a sudden increase in fiber intake. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake suddenly can lead to digestive issues. Choice C is incorrect as decreasing fiber intake abruptly may not be necessary and can impact overall health. Choice D is incorrect as maintaining a high intake without considering the patient's current intake level can also cause digestive problems.