Nursing Elites

1. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

2. A patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving information from the oncology nurse. The patient asks the nurse why she should stop drinking and smoking and stay out of the sun. What would be the nurse's best response?

• A. Everyone should do these things because they are health promotion activities that apply to everyone.
• B. You don't want to develop a second cancer, do you?
• C. You need to do this just to be on the safe side.
• D. It's important to reduce other factors that increase the risk of second cancers.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should encourage patients to reduce other factors that increase the risk of developing second cancers, such as the use of tobacco and alcohol and exposure to environmental carcinogens and excessive sunlight. Choice A is too general and does not address the specific concerns of a cancer patient. Choice B uses fear tactics, which may not be the most effective approach. Choice C is vague and does not provide a clear rationale for the behavior change, unlike Choice D which specifically links the behaviors to reducing the risk of second cancers.

3. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?

• A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
• B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
• C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
• D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testicular cancer is indeed highly treatable and curable, particularly when detected early through regular self-examinations. The survival rates for testicular cancer are very high, with many cases being treatable even if the cancer has spread, thanks to effective treatment options such as surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Educating clients on the importance of early detection through monthly testicular self-examinations can empower them to recognize any changes early, increasing the likelihood of successful treatment.

4. The clinic nurse is caring for a patient whose grandmother and sister have both had breast cancer. She requested a screening test to determine her risk of developing breast cancer and it has come back positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent breast cancer from occurring. What would be your best response?

• A. Research has shown that eating a healthy diet can provide all the protection you need against breast cancer.
• B. Research has shown that taking the drug tamoxifen can reduce your chance of breast cancer.
• C. Research has shown that exercising at least 30 minutes every day can reduce your chance of breast cancer.
• D. Research has shown that there is little you can do to reduce your risk of breast cancer if you have a genetic predisposition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in women who are at high risk, particularly those with a family history of the disease or a positive genetic test for BRCA mutations. Large-scale studies have demonstrated that tamoxifen can reduce the incidence of breast cancer by up to 50% in high-risk women. It works by blocking estrogen receptors in breast tissue, which helps prevent the development of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancers.

5. Nurse Ben is reviewing the laboratory results of a client undergoing chemotherapy. Which of the following values would require immediate intervention?

• A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3
• B. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL
• D. Absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infection. Neutrophils are crucial in fighting off infections; a low count increases susceptibility to infections. Platelet count, white blood cell count, and hemoglobin levels are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

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