an adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm painless cervical lymph node the patient denies any recent infectious d
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Test Bank

1. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

2. The nurse has educated a client on precautions to take with thrombocytopenia. What statement by the client indicates a need to review the information?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because enemas can cause injury to a thrombocytopenic client due to the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are correct precautions for a client with thrombocytopenia. Using an electric shaver reduces the risk of cuts that could lead to bleeding. Eating soft, cool, or warm food helps prevent injuries to the oral mucosa. Avoiding activities like sports that carry a risk of injury is also advisable.

3. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patient's most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. In multiple myeloma, bone destruction can lead to the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream, causing hypercalcemia. This imbalance is commonly seen in patients with multiple myeloma. Choice B, Hyperproteinemia, is not typically associated with bone destruction in multiple myeloma. Choice C, Elevated serum viscosity, and Choice D, Elevated RBC count, are not directly related to the bone destruction seen in multiple myeloma.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a pelvic exenteration, and the health care provider changes the client's diet from NPO status to clear liquids. The nurse should check which priority item before administering the diet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bowel sounds. Checking for bowel sounds is crucial before administering any diet to ensure the gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly following surgery. This assessment helps prevent complications such as paralytic ileus. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While the ability to ambulate, incision appearance, and urine specific gravity are important assessments, ensuring bowel function takes precedence in this postoperative scenario.

5. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.

Similar Questions

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