Nursing Elites

1. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

2. Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:

• A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
• B. on the same day each month.
• C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
• D. immediately after her menstrual period.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For premenopausal women, the best time to perform a breast self-examination (BSE) is immediately after their menstrual period ends. This timing is ideal because hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle can cause breast tissue to become swollen and tender, making it more difficult to detect any lumps or changes. After the menstrual period, breast tissue is usually softer and less lumpy, allowing for a more accurate assessment of any abnormalities.

3. A patient with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is receiving induction therapy. What is the priority nursing intervention during this phase of treatment?

• A. Administering pain management
• B. Monitoring for signs of infection
• C. Providing emotional support
• D. Monitoring fluid balance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Induction therapy for acute myeloid leukemia (AML) involves intensive chemotherapy aimed at achieving remission by eliminating a large number of cancerous cells. However, this aggressive treatment also severely reduces the production of healthy blood cells, including neutrophils, which leads to neutropenia (a dangerously low number of neutrophils). This makes the patient highly susceptible to infections, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring for signs of infection is critical during this phase, as infections may occur quickly and progress rapidly due to the compromised immune system. Early detection and prompt treatment of infections are vital to improving patient outcomes during induction therapy.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is at risk for anemia. What is the most appropriate intervention to address this risk?

• A. Administering iron supplements
• B. Administering blood transfusions
• C. Providing a high-iron diet
• D. Administering erythropoietin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), the bone marrow does not produce enough healthy blood cells, leading to conditions such as anemia. Administering erythropoietin is an effective intervention to manage anemia in MDS patients because it stimulates the production of red blood cells. This can help improve the patient’s hemoglobin levels, reducing symptoms such as fatigue and weakness associated with anemia. Erythropoietin is commonly used in MDS to enhance red blood cell production and reduce the need for frequent blood transfusions.

5. Nurse Ben is reviewing the laboratory results of a client undergoing chemotherapy. Which of the following values would require immediate intervention?

• A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3
• B. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL
• D. Absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infection. Neutrophils are crucial in fighting off infections; a low count increases susceptibility to infections. Platelet count, white blood cell count, and hemoglobin levels are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

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