ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?
- A. Call 911.
- B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
- C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
- D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.
2. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?
- A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
- B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
- C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
- D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.
3. A young adult patient has received the news that her treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma has been deemed successful and that no further treatment is necessary at this time. The care team should ensure that the patient receives regular health assessments in the future due to the risk of what complication?
- A. Iron-deficiency anemia
- B. Hemophilia
- C. Hematologic cancers
- D. Genitourinary cancers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hematologic cancers. Survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma are at a high risk of developing second cancers, with hematologic cancers being the most common complication. Regular health assessments are crucial for early detection and management. Iron-deficiency anemia (A) is not a typical long-term complication of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Hemophilia (B) is a genetic bleeding disorder unrelated to Hodgkin lymphoma. Genitourinary cancers (D) are not the most common complication seen in survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma.
4. A nurse works on an oncology unit and delegates personal hygiene to assistive personnel (AP). What action by the AP requires intervention from the nurse?
- A. Allowing a very tired client to skip oral hygiene and sleep.
- B. Assisting clients with washing the perianal area every 12 hours.
- C. Helping the client use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care.
- D. Reminding the client to rinse the mouth with water or saline.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Skipping oral hygiene is not appropriate for a client, even if they are tired, as it increases the risk of infection.
5. Nurse Mike is providing care to a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The nurse knows that the client is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which of the following laboratory values requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased uric acid level
- B. Increased serum potassium level
- C. Increased serum sodium level
- D. Increased fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased uric acid level. In tumor lysis syndrome, rapid cell destruction releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids into the bloodstream. Uric acid can accumulate rapidly, leading to hyperuricemia, which can result in kidney damage due to urate crystal deposition. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent renal complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while electrolyte imbalances are common in tumor lysis syndrome, hyperuricemia with potential kidney damage is the priority concern that requires immediate attention.
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