Nursing Elites

1. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

2. A nurse is providing education to a patient with polycythemia vera about self-care strategies. What advice should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid hot showers
• B. Drink plenty of fluids
• C. Avoid tight and restrictive clothing
• D. Avoid prolonged sitting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a patient with polycythemia vera is to drink plenty of fluids. This helps in reducing the risk of thrombosis by keeping the blood less viscous. Avoiding hot showers (Choice A) is not directly related to managing polycythemia vera. While avoiding tight and restrictive clothing (Choice C) can help improve circulation, it is not the most crucial advice for these patients. Avoiding prolonged sitting (Choice D) is important to prevent blood clots but is not as critical as staying well-hydrated.

3. Nurse Casey is preparing to administer chemotherapy to a client with leukemia. The nurse wears gloves and a gown to administer the medication and to prevent exposure to the agent by which of the following routes?

• A. By ingestion
• B. By skin contact
• C. By absorption
• D. By inhalation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chemotherapeutic agents can be hazardous to healthcare workers if they are exposed to the drugs during preparation or administration. One of the primary risks is inhalation, where small particles or aerosols of the drug can become airborne and be inhaled, potentially causing harm to the nurse. Protective gear such as gloves and a gown, as well as masks or respirators in some cases, helps prevent this type of exposure.

4. A nurse is creating a plan of care for an oncology patient and one of the identified nursing diagnoses is risk for infection related to myelosuppression. What intervention addresses the leading cause of infection-related death in oncology patients?

• A. Encourage several small meals daily.
• B. Provide skin care to maintain skin integrity.
• C. Assist the patient with hygiene, as needed.
• D. Assess the integrity of the patient’s oral mucosa regularly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In oncology patients, particularly those undergoing chemotherapy or radiation therapy, myelosuppression (the decrease in bone marrow activity that leads to reduced white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets) increases the risk of infection. Maintaining skin integrity is crucial because the skin acts as the body's first line of defense against infections. If the skin becomes compromised, such as through radiation burns, rashes, or breakdowns, it provides a potential entry point for pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. Since infections in oncology patients can quickly become severe due to their weakened immune systems, maintaining skin integrity is a critical intervention to reduce infection risk, especially for patients who are immunosuppressed.

5. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.

Similar Questions