ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Muscle irritability
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia refers to low levels of potassium in the blood, which can affect muscle function. The decreased potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness, cramping, and even paralysis. These symptoms can impact various muscle groups in the body, making muscle weakness the most significant symptom to monitor and address in patients with hypokalemia.
2. Which pulse's absence may not be a significant finding when a patient is admitted to the hospital?
- A. Apical
- B. Radial
- C. Pedal
- D. Femoral
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The absence of the pedal pulse may not be significant if the patient has poor peripheral circulation or if the healthcare provider is focused on other pulse points. The pedal pulse is often weaker and may not always be palpable due to various factors, making its absence less concerning in certain situations. However, the absence of other pulses like radial or femoral pulses may indicate more critical conditions and require immediate attention.
3. Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?
- A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion
- B. Using a water or air mattress
- C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
- D. Providing meticulous skin care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.
4. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?
- A. Optic
- B. Olfactory
- C. Oculomotor
- D. Trochlear
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.
5. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
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