Nursing Elites

1. After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?

• A. Lethargy
• B. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Muscle irritability

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia refers to low levels of potassium in the blood, which can affect muscle function. The decreased potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness, cramping, and even paralysis. These symptoms can impact various muscle groups in the body, making muscle weakness the most significant symptom to monitor and address in patients with hypokalemia.

2. Which hormone is secreted by the Islets of Langerhans?

• A. Progesterone
• B. Testosterone
• C. Insulin
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin is the correct answer. It is the hormone secreted by the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. These specialized cells regulate blood sugar levels by releasing insulin in response to high blood glucose levels. Insulin aids in glucose absorption by cells, lowering blood sugar levels. Progesterone, testosterone, and hemoglobin are not secreted by the Islets of Langerhans and do not play a role in blood sugar regulation.

3. A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing the client finds the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the client’s body temperature?

• A. Oral
• B. Axillary
• C. Arterial line
• D. Rectal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases where the oral route is contraindicated due to oral surgery or altered consciousness, the rectal method is preferred for the most accurate body temperature reading. This method is particularly useful when the skin is flushed and warm, as it provides a reliable reflection of core body temperature despite external factors affecting the skin temperature. Axillary temperature may not be as accurate as rectal temperature due to variations caused by environmental factors and technique. Arterial line temperature monitoring is invasive and not typically used for routine temperature assessment.

4. What is the correct sequence for assessing the abdomen?

• A. Tympanic percussion, measurement of abdominal girth, and inspection
• B. Assessment for distention, tenderness, and discoloration around the umbilicus
• C. Percussion, palpation, and auscultation
• D. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Auscultation allows the healthcare provider to listen for bowel sounds, followed by percussion to assess for areas of tenderness or abnormal distention, and finally palpation to feel for masses or organ enlargement. This sequence ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of the abdomen.

5. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

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