ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Muscle irritability
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia refers to low levels of potassium in the blood, which can affect muscle function. The decreased potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness, cramping, and even paralysis. These symptoms can impact various muscle groups in the body, making muscle weakness the most significant symptom to monitor and address in patients with hypokalemia.
2. A client is receiving vecuronium for acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering with this medication?
- A. Fentanyl
- B. Furosemide
- C. Famotidine
- D. Dexamethasone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during mechanical ventilation. When administering vecuronium, it is common to also give an opioid analgesic, such as fentanyl, to manage pain and ensure the patient's comfort. Fentanyl is often used in combination with neuromuscular blocking agents to provide balanced anesthesia, making it the appropriate medication to anticipate administering in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
- C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
- D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.
4. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
- A. Assessing clot formation potential
- B. Assessing bleeding risk
- C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
- D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
5. What is the appropriate needle size for insulin injection?
- A. 18G, 1 ½” long
- B. 22G, 1” long
- C. 22G, 1 ½” long
- D. 25G, 5/8” long
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is 25G, 5/8” long. This size allows for accurate and comfortable insulin administration in subcutaneous tissue.
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