ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Muscle irritability
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia refers to low levels of potassium in the blood, which can affect muscle function. The decreased potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness, cramping, and even paralysis. These symptoms can impact various muscle groups in the body, making muscle weakness the most significant symptom to monitor and address in patients with hypokalemia.
2. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
3. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
- C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
- D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.
4. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?
- A. Prothrombin and coagulation time
- B. Blood typing and cross-matching
- C. Bleeding and clotting time
- D. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a blood transfusion, it is crucial to perform blood typing and cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. This process helps prevent adverse reactions such as transfusion reactions, which can be life-threatening. Prothrombin and coagulation time, bleeding and clotting time, as well as CBC and electrolyte levels are important tests in other clinical contexts, but for blood transfusions, blood typing and cross-matching are essential to ensure patient safety.
5. A patient is kept off food and fluids for 10 hours before surgery. His oral temperature at 8 a.m. is 99.8°F (37.7°C). This temperature reading probably indicates:
- A. Infection
- B. Hypothermia
- C. Anxiety
- D. Dehydration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A patient being kept off food and fluids before surgery can lead to dehydration. Dehydration can cause a slight increase in body temperature, which could explain the elevated oral temperature reading of 99.8°F (37.7°C) in this scenario. Infections are more likely to cause higher fevers, hypothermia would present with a lower temperature, and anxiety typically does not directly affect body temperature in this manner.
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