Nursing Elites

1. After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?

• A. Lethargy
• B. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Muscle irritability

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia refers to low levels of potassium in the blood, which can affect muscle function. The decreased potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness, cramping, and even paralysis. These symptoms can impact various muscle groups in the body, making muscle weakness the most significant symptom to monitor and address in patients with hypokalemia.

2. What is another name for the knee-chest position?

• A. Genu-dorsal
• B. Genu-pectoral
• C. Lithotomy
• D. Sim’s

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The knee-chest position is correctly identified as the genu-pectoral position. In this position, a person rests on their knees and chest with the abdomen raised and the head turned to one side. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures involving the rectal or pelvic areas, allowing for better visualization and access. Choice A, 'Genu-dorsal,' is incorrect as it does not refer to the knee-chest position. Choice C, 'Lithotomy,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is lying on their back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, commonly used during childbirth or certain surgeries. Choice D, 'Sim’s,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back.

3. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?

• A. 15
• B. 60
• C. 10
• D. 30

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.

4. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

5. A patient requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Shoulder presentation
• C. Postterm with oligohydramnios
• D. Chorioamnionitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postterm pregnancy with oligohydramnios is a contraindication for the use of oxytocin due to the increased risk of uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. Oxytocin can further stress the fetus in this scenario, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to recognize this contraindication to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby during labor.

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