ace inhibitors

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. How do ACE inhibitors work?

A. Block the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone effects of angiotensin II at the receptor site
B. Block stimulation of beta 1 and beta 2 at the receptor sites
C. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its production, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload of the heart. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), not ACE inhibitors. Choice B is incorrect as it describes beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do have a specific mechanism of action.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following side effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for and report?

A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Increased heart rate
C. Dark-colored urine
D. Persistent cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine, a vasodilator, can cause reflex tachycardia, leading to an increased heart rate. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and monitoring of the client's condition. Choice A (Orthostatic hypotension) is incorrect as Hydralazine is more likely to cause reflex tachycardia than orthostatic hypotension. Choice C (Dark-colored urine) and Choice D (Persistent cough) are unrelated to the common side effects of Hydralazine and should not be the focus of monitoring for this medication.

3. When teaching a client with a prescription for Phenytoin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Expect the development of a mild rash.
B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
C. Monitor for signs of gingival hyperplasia.
D. Increase your intake of calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition characterized by overgrowth of gum tissue. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for signs of gingival hyperplasia, such as swollen or bleeding gums. Good oral hygiene practices are essential to prevent or manage this side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause a mild rash, should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, and does not warrant an increase in calcium intake.

4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Lansoprazole?

A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B. Gastritis
C. Hypertension
D. Reflux

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat conditions related to excessive stomach acid production, such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, gastritis, and reflux. However, it is not indicated for the treatment of hypertension, which is managed using antihypertensive medications. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Hypertension.

5. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

A. Increased TSH level
B. Decreased ALT level
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels, can occur as an adverse effect of Ritonavir. Monitoring lipid levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect in clients taking this medication for HIV infection.