Nursing Elites

1. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

• A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
• B. Bacterial invasion
• C. Impaired arterial blood supply
• D. Metaplastic cellular changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with lung cancer who is experiencing dyspnea. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Administer a cough suppressant to reduce discomfort.
• B. Encourage the client to lie flat to ease breathing.
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen therapy.
• D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with lung cancer experiencing dyspnea is to provide supplemental oxygen therapy. This intervention helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. Administering a cough suppressant (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of dyspnea and can potentially depress the respiratory drive. Encouraging the client to lie flat (Choice B) can worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial in some situations, but when a client is experiencing dyspnea due to lung cancer, supplemental oxygen therapy is the priority to improve oxygen levels and alleviate breathing difficulty.

3. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:

• A. Leukemia
• B. Sideroblastic anemia
• C. Hemosiderosis
• D. Polycythemia vera

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.

4. What specific instructions should the nurse provide to ensure proper administration of alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
• C. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
• D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before eating or drinking anything other than water. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with milk as it can interfere with its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food.

5. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

• A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
• B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
• C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
• D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

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