Nursing Elites

1. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

• A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
• B. Bacterial invasion
• C. Impaired arterial blood supply
• D. Metaplastic cellular changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

2. Which of the following patients are at higher risk for developing oral cancer?

• A. A female who has taken oral contraceptives for the last 4 years
• B. Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe
• C. An adult female who eats spicy foods regularly
• D. An older adult female who chews gum frequently

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe.' Alcohol consumption and tobacco use, such as smoking a pipe, are well-known risk factors for developing oral cancer. These two factors significantly increase the likelihood of developing oral cancer compared to the other choices. Taking oral contraceptives, eating spicy foods regularly, and chewing gum frequently are not established risk factors for oral cancer, making them less likely to lead to the development of this type of cancer.

3. What is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma?

• A. Infection
• B. Allergic reaction
• C. Excessive exercise
• D. High altitude

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An allergic reaction is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients. When individuals with asthma come in contact with allergens like pollen, dust mites, or pet dander, it can lead to an allergic reaction that triggers bronchospasm. Infections, excessive exercise, and high altitudes can exacerbate asthma symptoms, but they are not the most common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients.

4. In a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax), what is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Increased hair growth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Tamsulosin is prescribed for patients with BPH to relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation helps in relieving the symptoms of BPH, such as decreased urinary flow, frequent urination, and urgency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not increase urinary output but rather improves the flow of urine by relaxing the muscles. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin is not primarily used for reducing blood pressure. Choice D is also incorrect as tamsulosin does not promote increased hair growth.

5. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?

• A. The client has difficulty swallowing.
• B. The client has loss of gag reflex.
• C. The client has an inability to smell.
• D. The client has impaired eye movement.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.

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