Nursing Elites

1. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should educate the patient that the full therapeutic effect of this medication may take:

• A. 1-2 days
• B. 1-2 weeks
• C. 2-4 weeks
• D. 6-8 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI used in treating generalized anxiety disorder, typically takes 6-8 weeks to achieve its full therapeutic effect. While some improvement may be noticed earlier, the maximum benefit is usually experienced after this timeframe. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they underestimate the time required for escitalopram to reach its full effectiveness. Educating patients about the realistic timeline for medication effectiveness is crucial in managing expectations and ensuring adherence to the prescribed treatment.

2. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?

• A. I've found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.
• B. I really enjoy journaling; it's my private time.
• C. I signed up for a yoga class this week.
• D. I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is maladaptive and can hinder the development of appropriate coping skills and access to support systems. It may indicate a lack of healthy coping strategies and social connections, which are important for managing stress effectively. Choice B is a positive coping strategy that promotes self-reflection and emotional expression. Choice C reflects a proactive approach to managing stress through physical activity. Choice D shows a willingness to seek professional help, which is a healthy coping mechanism.

3. A client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) states, 'I just can't stop worrying about everything.' Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Ineffective coping
• B. Disturbed thought processes
• C. Chronic low self-esteem
• D. Social isolation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who expresses an inability to stop worrying about everything is 'Ineffective coping.' This diagnosis indicates the client's struggle to manage anxiety and worry effectively, which aligns with the client's statement. 'Disturbed thought processes' (Choice B) would involve disorganized or irrational thinking patterns, which are not directly related to the client's statement about excessive worry. 'Chronic low self-esteem' (Choice C) refers to a long-standing negative self-evaluation and is not the most fitting diagnosis for the client's current concern. 'Social isolation' (Choice D) pertains to a lack of social interactions and support, which is not the primary issue highlighted by the client's statement.

4. A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid driving until you know how the medication affects you.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.

5. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

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