Nursing Elites

1. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should educate the patient that the full therapeutic effect of this medication may take:

• A. 1-2 days
• B. 1-2 weeks
• C. 2-4 weeks
• D. 6-8 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI used in treating generalized anxiety disorder, typically takes 6-8 weeks to achieve its full therapeutic effect. While some improvement may be noticed earlier, the maximum benefit is usually experienced after this timeframe. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they underestimate the time required for escitalopram to reach its full effectiveness. Educating patients about the realistic timeline for medication effectiveness is crucial in managing expectations and ensuring adherence to the prescribed treatment.

2. Therapeutic communication is the foundation of a patient-centered interview. Which of the following techniques is not considered therapeutic?

• A. Restating
• B. Encouraging description of perception
• C. Summarizing
• D. Asking 'why' questions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Asking 'why' questions is not considered a therapeutic technique in patient-centered communication as it can make patients feel defensive or judged. 'Why' questions may imply criticism or put the patient on the spot, potentially hindering open and honest communication. Instead, focusing on open-ended questions that encourage patients to express their feelings and thoughts without feeling judged or interrogated is more conducive to therapeutic communication.

3. When assessing a client with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a depressive episode, which of the following findings should the nurse not expect?

• A. Low energy
• B. Feelings of hopelessness
• C. Insomnia or hypersomnia
• D. Difficulty concentrating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, common findings include low energy, feelings of hopelessness, insomnia or hypersomnia, and decreased appetite. Difficulty concentrating is more indicative of attention deficit disorders or cognitive impairment rather than a typical presentation of a depressive episode in bipolar disorder.

4. When explaining suicide precautions to a client, what would be the best explanation?

• A. You need to control yourself. If you cannot, we will do it for you.
• B. This can seem embarrassing, but we want you to be safe.
• C. You will stay on these precautions for one week.
• D. When you feel you are safer, then we will not need to observe you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D provides a supportive and empowering explanation to the client on suicide precautions. It emphasizes the client's own sense of safety and control, indicating that the observation is temporary and can be removed when the client feels safer. This approach promotes autonomy and encourages the client to actively participate in their own well-being, fostering a therapeutic relationship based on trust and collaboration.

5. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

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