Nursing Elites

1. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should educate the patient that the full therapeutic effect of this medication may take:

• A. 1-2 days
• B. 1-2 weeks
• C. 2-4 weeks
• D. 6-8 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI used in treating generalized anxiety disorder, typically takes 6-8 weeks to achieve its full therapeutic effect. While some improvement may be noticed earlier, the maximum benefit is usually experienced after this timeframe. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they underestimate the time required for escitalopram to reach its full effectiveness. Educating patients about the realistic timeline for medication effectiveness is crucial in managing expectations and ensuring adherence to the prescribed treatment.

2. Which of the following interventions should not be included in the care plan for a client with major depressive disorder?

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Discourage verbalization of feelings
• D. Monitor for suicidal ideation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Interventions for a client with major depressive disorder should focus on promoting activities, adequate nutrition, hydration, and monitoring for suicidal ideation. Verbalizing feelings is a crucial part of therapy for clients with depression as it helps in processing emotions and seeking support. Therefore, discouraging verbalization of feelings is not appropriate and goes against therapeutic principles.

3. A client diagnosed with OCD spends hours bathing and grooming. During a one-on-one interaction, the client discusses the rituals in detail but avoids any feelings that the rituals generate. Which defense mechanism should the nurse identify?

• A. Dissociation
• B. Rationalization
• C. Sublimation
• D. Intellectualization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intellectualization is a defense mechanism where an individual focuses on rational, logical explanations to distance themselves from uncomfortable emotions. In this scenario, the client discusses the OCD rituals in a detailed and analytical manner, avoiding the emotional aspects associated with them. This behavior reflects intellectualization rather than dissociation, rationalization, or sublimation. Dissociation involves a disconnection from reality, rationalization is the attempt to justify behaviors, and sublimation is redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.

4. A female patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the patient regarding her signs and symptoms?

• A. Her memory problems will likely decrease.
• B. Depressive episodes should be less severe.
• C. She will probably enjoy social interactions more.
• D. She should experience a reduction in hallucinations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: First-generation antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. These medications primarily target positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the nurse should inform the patient that she should experience a reduction in hallucinations with the prescribed first-generation antipsychotic medication.

5. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should not be included in the teaching? Select all that apply.

• A. Deep breathing exercises
• B. Progressive muscle relaxation
• C. Mindfulness meditation
• D. Cognitive restructuring

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, and mindfulness meditation are commonly used relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Cognitive restructuring is a cognitive-behavioral technique aimed at changing negative thought patterns and beliefs, not a relaxation technique. It focuses on altering cognitive distortions rather than inducing physical relaxation responses.

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