Nursing Elites

1. Which medication should a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease avoid?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Antacids
• C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• D. Antihistamines

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers due to their effects on the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in such patients as it does not have the same ulcerogenic effects. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help alleviate symptoms by neutralizing stomach acid and are generally safe to use. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to exacerbate peptic ulcers and can be used safely for conditions like allergies.

2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Recommend awards and promotions'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Accountability.' Accountability involves recommending awards and promotions as part of managing personnel. This responsibility revolves around assessing employee performance and recognizing achievements through awards and promotions. Choice B, 'Personal/professional development,' focuses on enhancing employees' skills and knowledge, not specifically related to recommending awards or promotions. Choice C, 'Individual training,' pertains to providing instruction and guidance to improve specific skills, not directly linked to awarding or promoting individuals. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' deals with maintaining physical standards and presentation, unrelated to recommending awards and promotions.

3. Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in the client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Pheochromocytoma
• B. Diabetes insipidus
• C. Hashimoto's disease
• D. Gynecomastia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus can develop after a head injury due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Pheochromocytoma (Choice A) is a tumor of the adrenal gland that causes excessive release of catecholamines, leading to hypertension. Hashimoto's disease (Choice C) is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid gland. Gynecomastia (Choice D) refers to the enlargement of breast tissue in males and is not directly related to a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure.

4. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Explain to the client that it is too early to have an injection for pain
• B. Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders
• C. Reposition the client for greater comfort and turn on the television as a distraction
• D. Prepare the injection and administer it to the client early because of the severe pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client's symptoms, including severe abdominal pain, pallor, perspiration, thready rapid pulse, and feeling faint, are indicative of potential complications like internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Explaining to the client that it is too early for pain medication or repositioning the client for comfort are not appropriate actions given the severity of the symptoms. Administering the injection early without consulting the practitioner can be dangerous and may worsen the client's condition.

5. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.

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