Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

2. A patient is receiving intravenous amphotericin. Which of the following assessments warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Hematocrit of 39%
• C. Blood urea nitrogen of 60 mg/dL
• D. AST level of 10 Unit/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intravenous amphotericin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to increased blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates impaired renal function, which is a known adverse effect of amphotericin. Therefore, a BUN level of 60 mg/dL warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent. The other options, such as a sodium level of 138 mEq/L, hematocrit of 39%, and AST level of 10 Unit/L, are within normal ranges and not indicative of the need to discontinue amphotericin therapy.

3. What is a critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex)?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen is that it may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. This is crucial information because tamoxifen is known to promote blood clot formation, and patients need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots to seek prompt medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, or directly causing weight gain and fluid retention.

4. Which of the following correctly identifies the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems?

• A. Phagocytic, interferon, and complement systems.
• B. Complement, fibrinolytic, and clotting systems.
• C. Complement, clotting, and kinin systems.
• D. Complement, clotting, and acute phase reactant systems.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Complement, clotting, and kinin systems. These are the three main plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. The complement system helps in inflammation and immune responses, the clotting system is involved in blood coagulation, and the kinin system regulates inflammation and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because interferon is not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. Choice B is incorrect because the fibrinolytic system is not a primary inflammatory mediator system. Choice D is incorrect because acute phase reactants are not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems.

5. A patient is starting on atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with alcohol to reduce the risk of liver damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Atorvastatin should be taken at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Taking it at night aligns with the body's natural rhythm of cholesterol production, optimizing its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice can increase the risk of side effects by affecting the metabolism of atorvastatin. Choice C is incorrect as taking atorvastatin in the morning does not maximize its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol consumption can increase the risk of liver damage when combined with atorvastatin.

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