Nursing Elites

1. A patient taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming which type of food?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. High-vitamin K foods
• D. High-calcium foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High-vitamin K foods. Foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, so consuming high amounts of it can counteract the anticoagulant effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly interfere with the action of anticoagulants.

2. The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck’s traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

• A. The nurse removes the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin
• B. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side
• C. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side and the nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg
• D. The nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Turning the client to the unaffected side helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Dorsiflexion of the foot on the affected leg helps maintain proper alignment and prevent foot drop. The incorrect choices are A and D. Removing the foam boot multiple times per day can disrupt traction, and asking the client to dorsiflex the foot may not be appropriate without ensuring proper alignment and direction from the healthcare provider.

3. When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position herself?

• A. At the client's back
• B. At the client's right side
• C. At the client's left side
• D. In front of a sitting client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position herself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Placing oneself in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as positioning at the back or sides of the client may hinder proper assessment due to limited visibility and access to the neck area.

4. A client who is postpartum and diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?

• A. Yogurt and mozzarella
• B. Spinach and beef
• C. Fish and cottage cheese
• D. Turkey slices and milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach and beef. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, both essential for treating iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt and mozzarella (choice A) are not significant sources of iron. Fish and cottage cheese (choice C) do not provide as much iron as spinach and beef. Turkey slices and milk (choice D) are also not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef.

5. Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?

• A. “Has your child had any sore throats?”
• B. “Has your child been eating properly?”
• C. “Is your child allergic to any antibiotics?”
• D. “Has your child been exposed to any infections?”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the mother before administering an MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is whether the child is allergic to any antibiotics. This is crucial because vaccines like MMR contain components that the child could be allergic to, such as neomycin. Checking for antibiotic allergies is essential to prevent adverse reactions to the vaccine. The other options are less relevant in this context. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections does not directly impact the administration of the MMR vaccine.

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