a patient is receiving chloroquine aralen for extraintestinal amebiasis which of the following medications should be administered with chloroquine
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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. A patient is receiving chloroquine (Aralen) for extraintestinal amebiasis. Which of the following medications should be administered with chloroquine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metronidazole (Flagyl). When treating extraintestinal amebiasis, chloroquine is often used in combination with metronidazole to ensure the eradication of the parasite. Metronidazole helps to target the infection more effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin) is another antiprotozoal agent but is not typically used in combination with chloroquine for amebiasis. Metyrosine (Demser) is used in the management of pheochromocytoma, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is an anticonvulsant and mood-stabilizing drug, neither of which are indicated for extraintestinal amebiasis.

2. When assessing a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives, what should the nurse consider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of missed doses or inconsistent use, which can decrease the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive. Considering the possibility of pregnancy (Choice A) is important but secondary to assessing adherence. The need for an increased dosage (Choice C) is not typically the first consideration for breakthrough bleeding. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (Choice D) is relevant but should come after assessing adherence to the medication schedule.

3. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.

4. A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

5. A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it is typically prescribed continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because patients should not stop the medication if side effects occur without consulting their healthcare provider.

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