Nursing Elites

1. A patient is considering options to manage his/her coronary artery disease. The nurse explains a coronary artery bypass graft procedure will:

• A. Cure the patient's coronary artery disease.
• B. Replace the leaking valve in the heart.
• C. Connect grafts to aorta to improve blood flow.
• D. Place a permanent pacemaker on the heart muscle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A coronary artery bypass graft procedure involves connecting grafts to the aorta to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries. This procedure does not cure coronary artery disease but helps improve blood supply to the heart. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bypass graft procedure does not cure the underlying disease, replace heart valves, or involve the placement of a pacemaker.

2. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient post-coronary artery bypass graft procedure who is on a nitroglycerin intravenous drip. The nurse understands the importance of nitroglycerin with this procedure as:

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply.
• B. Increasing preload.
• C. Decreasing cardiac output.
• D. Decreasing afterload.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing afterload, which is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole. By reducing afterload, nitroglycerin helps the heart pump more effectively and decreases the workload on the heart. This results in improved cardiac output and decreased myocardial oxygen demand. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not decrease myocardial oxygen supply, increase preload, or decrease cardiac output.

4. A patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin is scheduled for the following diagnostic tests. The nurse will provide a consent form to sign for which test?

• A. Bone marrow biopsy
• B. Abdominal ultrasound
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin, a bone marrow biopsy is usually indicated to determine the cause. A bone marrow biopsy is a minor surgical procedure that requires the patient or guardian to sign a surgical consent form. Abdominal ultrasound (Choice B) is not typically used to diagnose pancytopenia. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice C) is a routine blood test and does not require a specific consent form. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) (Choice D) is a coagulation test and not typically performed to diagnose pancytopenia.

5. A healthcare provider reviews the laboratory data for an older patient. The healthcare provider would be most concerned about which finding?

• A. Hematocrit of 35%
• B. Hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 400,000/μL
• D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/μL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low white blood cell (WBC) count in an older patient is concerning as it indicates a potential compromise in the patient's immune function. White blood cells are crucial for fighting infections and a low count could lead to an increased risk of infections. Hematocrit, hemoglobin, and platelet count are important parameters to assess, but a low WBC count takes priority in this case due to its direct impact on immune health.

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