Nursing Elites

1. A nurse preparing to start an IV on a newly admitted patient teaches the patient about the procedure and begins to prepare the site. The nurse should always start by:

• A. Leaving one hand ungloved to assess the site
• B. Preparing the skin with an iodine solution
• C. Asking the patient if they are allergic to latex or iodine
• D. Removing excessive hair at the selected site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before preparing the skin, the nurse should ask the patient if they are allergic to latex or iodine, which are commonly used in IV therapy setup. This is crucial to prevent potential allergic reactions at the IV site or even life-threatening anaphylaxis. Leaving one hand ungloved (choice A) is not a recommended practice as both hands should be gloved for infection control. While preparing the skin with an iodine solution (choice B) is a step in the process, ensuring the patient's safety by checking for allergies comes first. Removing excessive hair at the selected site (choice D) is not necessary and can lead to skin irritation.

2. While assessing a patient's peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?

• A. Air emboli
• B. Phlebitis
• C. Infiltration
• D. Fluid overload

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infiltration is the administration of a nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue, typically due to the dislodgement or perforation of the vein wall by the IV cannula. It is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid, discomfort, coolness, and a decrease in flow rate. In this scenario, the presence of edema indicates infiltration, not air emboli, phlebitis, or fluid overload. Air emboli refer to air bubbles in the bloodstream, phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and fluid overload is an excessive volume of fluid in the circulatory system.

3. A patient with hypokalemia and heart failure is admitted to the telemetry unit. The nurse is aware that hypokalemia could cause which of the following abnormalities on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?

• A. Shortened P-R interval
• B. Inverted T wave
• C. Depressed U wave
• D. Elevated U wave

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated U wave. Hypokalemia is associated with ECG changes such as an elevated U wave and flattened T waves. Choice A, a shortened P-R interval, is not typically seen in hypokalemia. Choice B, an inverted T wave, is more commonly associated with ischemia or CNS injury rather than hypokalemia. Choice C, a depressed U wave, is not a typical ECG abnormality seen in hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct ECG abnormality associated with hypokalemia is an elevated U wave.

4. After providing discharge teaching, a nurse assesses the clients understanding regarding increased risk for metabolic alkalosis. Which statement indicates the client needs additional teaching?

• A. . I dont drink milk because it gives me gas and diarrhea
• B. I have been taking digoxin every day for the last 15 years
• C. . I take sodium bicarbonate after every meal to prevent heartburn
• D. In hot weather, I sweat so much that I drink six glasses of water each day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

5. What electrolyte value should be monitored when a patient is receiving a loop diuretic?

• A. Calcium levels
• B. Phosphorus levels
• C. Potassium levels
• D. Magnesium levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving a loop diuretic like furosemide (Lasix), potassium levels should be monitored closely. Loop diuretics act on the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and water, leading to potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Calcium levels (Choice A), phosphorus levels (Choice B), and magnesium levels (Choice D) are not typically affected directly by loop diuretics and do not require routine monitoring in this context.

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