Nursing Elites

1. A nurse knows that the patient with stage 3 based on Ann-arber staging has:

• A. 2 or more lymph node involvement and outside the lymph nodes
• B. 2 or more lymph node involvement on one side of the body
• C. 2 or more lymph nodes on the breasts
• D. 2 or more lymph node involvement on both sides of the body

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the Ann Arbor staging system for lymphomas, Stage 3 indicates that the disease has spread beyond the initial lymph node region to involve lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm (i.e., the areas above and below the diaphragm). This includes lymphatic involvement in both the thoracic and abdominal regions, signifying a more advanced disease state.

2. A patient with leukemia has developed stomatitis and is experiencing a nutritional deficit. An oral anesthetic has consequently been prescribed. What health education should the nurse provide to the patient?

• A. Chew with care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue.
• B. Use the oral anesthetic 1 hour prior to meal time.
• C. Brush teeth before and after eating.
• D. Swallow slowly and deliberately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If oral anesthetics are used, the patient must be warned to chew with extreme care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue or buccal mucosa.

3. A nurse is preparing health education for a patient who has received a diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). Which of the following topics should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Techniques for energy conservation and activity management
• B. Emergency management of bleeding episodes
• C. Technique for the administration of bronchodilators by metered-dose inhaler
• D. Techniques for self-palpation of the lymph nodes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Because of patients risks of hemorrhage, patients with MDS should be taught techniques for managing emergent bleeding episodes.

4. Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?

• A. Yearly Pap tests
• B. Testicular self-examination
• C. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen
• D. Screening mammograms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Primary prevention involves actions taken to reduce the risk of developing cancer by preventing exposure to known risk factors or promoting healthy behaviors. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen is an example of primary prevention because it aims to reduce the risk of skin cancer by minimizing exposure to harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Encouraging protective measures such as wearing sunscreen, avoiding tanning beds, and wearing protective clothing are all steps to prevent skin cancer before it develops.

5. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

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