Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being taught to use TD nitroglycerin patches to treat angina pectoris. What instructions should be included?

• A. Apply a patch every 12 hours
• B. Apply a new patch every morning
• C. Use it only when symptoms appear
• D. Rotate the application site weekly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a new patch every morning. Nitroglycerin patches should be applied in the morning and removed at bedtime to provide a 14-hour nitrate-free interval, preventing tolerance development. Choice A is incorrect because applying a patch every 12 hours may lead to tolerance. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin patches are used prophylactically, not just when symptoms appear. Choice D is incorrect because rotating the application site weekly is not necessary; the same site can be used as long as there is no skin irritation.

2. A nurse notices another nurse skipping hand hygiene. What is the appropriate course of action?

• A. Ignore the situation to maintain team harmony.
• B. Report the behavior to the supervisor.
• C. Discuss the issue with the nurse directly.
• D. Do nothing and continue with patient care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct hand hygiene is crucial for preventing the spread of infections and ensuring patient safety. When a nurse observes another healthcare worker skipping hand hygiene practices, it is essential to report this behavior to the supervisor. Reporting ensures that appropriate action is taken to address the issue and maintain a safe environment for patients. Ignoring the situation (Choice A) may compromise patient safety. Discussing the issue directly with the nurse (Choice C) may not always be effective in ensuring compliance. Doing nothing and continuing with patient care (Choice D) disregards the importance of infection control protocols.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?

• A. Oral mucosa
• B. Conjunctivae
• C. Soles of the feet
• D. Ear lobes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2. To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg of digoxin, the nurse should administer two 0.125 mg tablets. This calculation ensures that the patient receives the correct amount of medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate dosage needed based on the available tablets and prescribed dose.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has osteomyelitis and a prescription for gentamicin IV every 8 hours. Which of the following serum laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider before administering the gentamicin?

• A. Hematocrit 45%
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL
• D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates potential kidney dysfunction, which is crucial when administering gentamicin as it can be nephrotoxic. Reporting a high creatinine level to the provider is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A (Hematocrit 45%) is within the normal range and not directly related to gentamicin administration. Choice B (Sodium 140 mEq/L) and Choice D (Potassium 4.0 mEq/L) are also within normal limits and do not directly impact the administration of gentamicin.

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