Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks gestation about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. This test will confirm whether your baby has a genetic disorder.
• B. Amniocentesis is used to assess your baby's lung maturity.
• C. You should not feel any pain during this procedure.
• D. This test will assess the amount of amniotic fluid around your baby.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because amniocentesis is a procedure that confirms genetic disorders by analyzing the amniotic fluid surrounding the baby. Choice B is incorrect because amniocentesis is not used to assess lung maturity. Choice C is incorrect because some discomfort or pain may be felt during the procedure. Choice D is incorrect because amniocentesis does not primarily assess the amount of amniotic fluid around the baby.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a thoracentesis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 96%
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• D. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tracheal deviation is the correct finding to report to the provider. It can indicate a pneumothorax, which is a serious complication following a thoracentesis that requires immediate attention. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate issue. A pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 is subjective and may not be related to a serious complication. A temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) is slightly elevated but not a priority over tracheal deviation in this context.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
• B. 1+ pitting edema
• C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

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