Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new prescription for sumatriptan tablets to treat migraine headaches should report which of the following symptoms to the nurse?

• A. Chew the tablet well before swallowing
• B. Report swelling of the eyelids after dosage
• C. Repeat dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache
• D. Take daily to prevent headaches

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling of the eyelids is a side effect of sumatriptan tablets that requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Chewing the tablet well before swallowing is not necessary for sumatriptan tablets. Repeating the dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache is incorrect as this medication should not be repeated within 24 hours. Taking sumatriptan daily for headache prevention is also incorrect as it is used for acute treatment, not prevention.

2. What is the primary purpose of turning and repositioning an immobile patient every 2 hours?

• A. To improve circulation and relieve pressure.
• B. To prevent contractures and muscle atrophy.
• C. To prevent skin breakdown and pressure ulcers.
• D. To improve respiratory function and prevent pneumonia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary purpose of turning and repositioning an immobile patient every 2 hours is to prevent skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Prolonged immobility can lead to pressure ulcers, making this a crucial nursing intervention. Choice A is incorrect because while turning can help improve circulation and relieve pressure, the primary purpose is to prevent skin breakdown. Choice B is incorrect as preventing contractures and muscle atrophy is important but not the primary purpose of turning. Choice D is incorrect as improving respiratory function and preventing pneumonia are not directly related to turning and repositioning for skin integrity.

3. A client with asthma is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Oral candidiasis
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Fluticasone, a corticosteroid medication commonly used to manage asthma, can lead to oral candidiasis due to its immunosuppressive effects. This fungal infection can manifest as white patches in the mouth and throat. Monitoring for signs of oral candidiasis is essential to initiate appropriate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination) is not a common adverse effect of fluticasone. Hypertension and hypoglycemia are also not typically associated with this medication, making them incorrect choices.

4. A nurse manager is preparing to complete staff performance appraisals. Which of the following principles should the nurse manager consider when completing the appraisals?

• A. Performance appraisals should be written in measurable terms
• B. Appraisal objectives should be applicable to staff at every level
• C. Performance appraisals should be based on the nurse manager's preferences
• D. Completed appraisals should be approved by a provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Performance appraisals should indeed be written in measurable terms to ensure objective evaluations based on specific outcomes achieved. This allows for a clear assessment of staff performance. Choice B is incorrect because appraisal objectives should be tailored to each staff member's role and responsibilities, not necessarily applicable at every level. Choice C is incorrect as performance appraisals should be objective and based on predefined criteria, not solely on the nurse manager's preferences. Choice D is incorrect as completed appraisals usually require approval from higher-level management or HR, not necessarily a provider.

5. A client has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food
• B. Take this medication three times daily
• C. You might have to stop taking this medication 5 days before any planned surgeries
• D. Expect to have black-colored stools while taking this medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When instructing a client who is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should include information about stopping the medication 5 days before any planned surgeries to reduce the risk of bleeding. This is crucial to prevent excessive bleeding during surgical procedures. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, the frequency of administration, and the possibility of black-colored stools are not specific instructions related to clopidogrel use.

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