ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
- C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Muscle spasms
- C. Cool, moist skin
- D. Incisional pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy, chest pain is a critical finding that should be reported immediately. Chest pain can indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism, which require prompt intervention. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not typical signs of immediate concern following an arterial thrombectomy. Incisional pain is expected postoperatively and may not warrant immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
3. A client is experiencing a seizure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place a tongue depressor in the client's mouth
- B. Loosen tight clothing around the client
- C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
- D. Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure, it is essential to loosen tight clothing around the client to prevent injury and promote adequate ventilation. Placing any objects, like a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth can lead to airway obstruction or injury. Restraining the client's arms and legs can exacerbate the situation by increasing muscle rigidity and potentially causing injury. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is not typically indicated during a seizure unless respiratory distress is present.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory results. Which of the following values is a contraindication to the administration of heparin?
- A. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
- B. Platelet count 50,000/mm³
- C. White blood cell count 6,000/mm³
- D. INR 2.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count 50,000/mm³. A platelet count of 50,000/mm³ increases the risk of bleeding, making heparin contraindicated. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count can lead to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications to heparin administration. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range, white blood cell count of 6,000/mm³ is also normal, and an INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for patients receiving heparin therapy.
5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Limit fluid intake
- B. Increase potassium intake
- C. Provide a high-protein diet
- D. Administer IV antibiotics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Limiting fluid intake is essential in managing patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen kidney function. Increasing potassium intake is not recommended as patients with kidney disease often need to limit potassium. Providing a high-protein diet may put extra strain on the kidneys, so it is not ideal. Administering IV antibiotics is not a standard treatment for chronic kidney disease.
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