Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
• B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
• C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
• D. Sodium 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Baked chicken
• B. Bananas
• C. Lean cuts of beef
• D. Canned soup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Canned soup. Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention in clients with chronic kidney disease. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing this condition. Choice A, baked chicken, is a lean protein source that is generally recommended for individuals with kidney disease. Bananas (Choice B) are high in potassium, so clients with kidney disease may need to limit their intake depending on their individual treatment plan. Lean cuts of beef (Choice C) can be a good source of protein and iron for clients with kidney disease as long as portion sizes are controlled to manage protein intake.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure daily while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nocturia.
• D. Avoid taking this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid sitting in a chair for longer than 30 minutes.
• B. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
• C. I will bend at the hips to pick up items from the floor.
• D. I will avoid using a raised toilet seat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bending at the hips can dislocate the hip joint in clients who have had a total hip arthroplasty. This movement should be avoided to prevent complications post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements for a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Avoiding prolonged sitting, crossing legs, and using a raised toilet seat are all appropriate measures to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
• B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
• D. Client reports dyspnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

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