ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. When starting Alfuzosin for the treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, a nurse is providing teaching to a client. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Edema
- C. Hypotension
- D. Tremor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct adverse effect of Alfuzosin is hypotension. Alfuzosin relaxes muscle tone in veins, leading to decreased cardiac output and subsequent hypotension. Patients on this medication should be advised to change positions slowly to prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice A, Bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Alfuzosin. Choice B, Edema, is not typically associated with Alfuzosin use. Choice D, Tremor, is also not a common adverse effect of Alfuzosin.
2. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?
- A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
- B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
- C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
- D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.
3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.
4. A client is prescribed Metformin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?
- A. Blood glucose
- B. Creatine kinase
- C. Hemoglobin A1c
- D. Serum creatinine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum creatinine. Metformin can potentially cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with impaired renal function. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any adverse effects of Metformin on renal health. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as blood glucose, creatine kinase, and hemoglobin A1c levels are not directly monitored to assess for potential adverse effects of Metformin. Blood glucose monitoring is typically done to assess the efficacy of antidiabetic medications like Metformin, while creatine kinase levels are indicative of muscle damage and hemoglobin A1c reflects long-term blood sugar control.
5. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. If the medication causes an upset stomach, take an antacid at the same time.
- B. Increase your daily fluid intake while taking this medication.
- C. This medication can cause photophobia, so avoid direct sunlight exposure.
- D. You should report any tendon discomfort you experience while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tendon discomfort is a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin that can lead to tendon rupture and should be reported immediately to prevent serious complications. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial for patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Taking an antacid with ciprofloxacin can interfere with its absorption. B) Increasing fluid intake is generally a good recommendation but not specifically related to the side effects of ciprofloxacin. C) Photophobia is not a common side effect of ciprofloxacin; therefore, avoiding direct sunlight exposure is not necessary.
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