Nursing Elites

1. When starting Alfuzosin for the treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, a nurse is providing teaching to a client. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Edema
• C. Hypotension
• D. Tremor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect of Alfuzosin is hypotension. Alfuzosin relaxes muscle tone in veins, leading to decreased cardiac output and subsequent hypotension. Patients on this medication should be advised to change positions slowly to prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice A, Bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Alfuzosin. Choice B, Edema, is not typically associated with Alfuzosin use. Choice D, Tremor, is also not a common adverse effect of Alfuzosin.

2. Which drug class has been found to decrease mortality if given within 8 hours of an MI due to a decrease in cardiac workload?

• A. Antiplatelets
• B. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• C. ACE inhibitors
• D. Calcium channel blockers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blockers have been shown to decrease mortality when administered within 8 hours of a myocardial infarction (MI). They do so by reducing cardiac workload, which helps improve outcomes post-MI. These drugs work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, leading to decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand, thereby protecting the heart muscle from further damage. This makes them a crucial part of the treatment regimen for acute coronary syndromes like MI.

3. During transfusion of a unit of whole blood, a nurse is assessing a client who develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Epinephrine
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms indicate circulatory overload, which can occur during blood transfusions. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such cases to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Epinephrine is used for severe allergic reactions, lorazepam for anxiety or seizures, and diphenhydramine for mild allergic reactions or as a sedative. Therefore, the correct choice is Furosemide (C) to manage circulatory overload during a blood transfusion.

4. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
• B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
• C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
• D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is receiving IV Opioid analgesics during labor, the nurse should offer oral hygiene every 2 hours. Opioid analgesics can cause adverse effects like dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting. Providing oral hygiene care helps alleviate these symptoms and maintains the client's comfort and well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate during labor as mobility may be limited. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's needs and the progress of labor. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but it is not specifically related to the client receiving IV Opioid analgesics.

5. Which of the following is not a side effect of Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Difficulty breathing
• C. Dry oral cavity
• D. Lethargic behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clonidine, a Sympathoplegic, typically causes hypotension rather than hypertension. The other side effects associated with Clonidine include dry oral cavity, lethargic behavior, and difficulty breathing, making them incorrect choices in this context.

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