Nursing Elites

1. When starting Alfuzosin for the treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, a nurse is providing teaching to a client. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Edema
• C. Hypotension
• D. Tremor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect of Alfuzosin is hypotension. Alfuzosin relaxes muscle tone in veins, leading to decreased cardiac output and subsequent hypotension. Patients on this medication should be advised to change positions slowly to prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice A, Bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Alfuzosin. Choice B, Edema, is not typically associated with Alfuzosin use. Choice D, Tremor, is also not a common adverse effect of Alfuzosin.

2. A client has a new prescription for Lithium Carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent Lithium toxicity, what advice should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid using acetaminophen for headaches.
• B. Restrict intake of foods high in sodium.
• C. Decrease fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily.
• D. Limit aerobic activity in hot weather.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to limit aerobic activity in hot weather to prevent sodium/water depletion, which can increase the risk for Lithium toxicity. Excessive sweating and fluid loss can lead to dehydration and changes in lithium levels, potentially resulting in toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding acetaminophen for headaches is not directly related to Lithium toxicity. Restricting sodium intake and decreasing fluid intake can lead to increased lithium levels and toxicity, so these are not recommended actions.

3. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

4. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

5. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.

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