Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for a Nicotine transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime.
• C. Apply the patch to the same location daily.
• D. Place the patch over an area of the body with hair.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nicotine transdermal patch is to apply the patch at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent blood levels of nicotine throughout the treatment period, which can aid in reducing cravings for smoking. Consistency in the application time is essential for the effectiveness of the patch. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Removing the patch at bedtime may disrupt the continuous delivery of nicotine, applying the patch to the same location daily can cause skin irritation, and placing the patch over an area with hair may affect its adhesion and absorption.

2. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Disorganized speech.
• B. Bizarre behavior.
• C. Impaired social interactions.
• D. Hallucinations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

3. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin toxicity?

• A. Protamine
• B. Methylene blue
• C. N-acetylcysteine
• D. Glucagon

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine is the specific antidote for Heparin toxicity. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication, and if an overdose occurs or if there is excessive bleeding due to Heparin use, protamine, a positively charged molecule, can neutralize the anticoagulant effects of Heparin by forming a complex with it. This binding prevents Heparin from further inhibiting coagulation factors and helps in reversing its effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that should be tapered off gradually to prevent rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. Abruptly stopping Metoprolol can lead to serious complications, so it is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on discontinuation. Choice A is incorrect because Metoprolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as Metoprolol is not typically associated with causing hyperglycemia. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods specifically due to taking Metoprolol.

5. A client is being assessed by a healthcare provider while taking Digoxin to manage heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bruising
• B. Report of metallic taste
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Report of anorexia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct manifestation of digoxin toxicity is anorexia, not bruising, metallic taste, or muscle pain. Other symptoms of digoxin toxicity include blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea. It is crucial for healthcare providers to promptly identify these signs to prevent severe complications.

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