ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Consume potassium-rich foods.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and dehydration. The client should be educated to watch for symptoms like dry mouth, increased thirst, weakness, dizziness, and decreased urine output. Prompt recognition of dehydration signs is crucial for timely intervention and prevention of complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Hydrochlorothiazide in the morning is not a specific instruction for this medication. While potassium-rich foods can be important when taking certain medications, it is not the priority instruction for Hydrochlorothiazide. Taking this medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the most critical instruction for a diuretic like Hydrochlorothiazide.
2. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?
- A. Shuffling gait
- B. Neck spasms
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Impotence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.
3. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.
4. When teaching a client with a prescription for Cephalexin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with an antacid.
- B. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
- C. Expect your stools to turn black.
- D. Complete the full course of medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed with Cephalexin is to complete the full course of medication. This is crucial to ensure the infection is completely treated and to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Cephalexin with an antacid is generally not recommended as it may reduce its effectiveness. While dairy products can interfere with certain antibiotics, they do not have a direct interaction with Cephalexin. Stools turning black is not an expected side effect of Cephalexin.
5. Why is it important to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors?
- A. To assess for renal impairment
- B. To ensure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake
- C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure
- D. To assess for NSAID use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is crucial to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors to assess for renal impairment. ACE inhibitors can affect renal function, potentially leading to renal impairment. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance helps in early recognition of any renal issues and allows for timely interventions to prevent complications.
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