a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide which of the following instructions should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and dehydration. The client should be educated to watch for symptoms like dry mouth, increased thirst, weakness, dizziness, and decreased urine output. Prompt recognition of dehydration signs is crucial for timely intervention and prevention of complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Hydrochlorothiazide in the morning is not a specific instruction for this medication. While potassium-rich foods can be important when taking certain medications, it is not the priority instruction for Hydrochlorothiazide. Taking this medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the most critical instruction for a diuretic like Hydrochlorothiazide.

2. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ranitidine is to take the medication at bedtime. Ranitidine is best taken at night to reduce nighttime stomach acid production, providing optimal relief for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and ulcers.

3. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, it is essential to monitor their heart rate before each dose. Changes such as a heart rate below 60 bpm should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. This is crucial because Digoxin can affect heart rhythm, and monitoring the heart rate helps in identifying any potential issues early on.

4. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.

5. In caring for a client who received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and presents with a pulse rate of 98/min and blood pressure of 74/44 mm Hg, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing severe hypotension due to Verapamil administration. The appropriate medication to counteract the vasodilation caused by Verapamil and reverse severe hypotension is Calcium gluconate, which should be administered slowly IV. Therefore, the correct choice is Calcium gluconate (Choice A). Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not indicated for hypotension related to Verapamil use. Potassium chloride (Choice C) and Magnesium sulfate (Choice D) are not the appropriate medications to address the hypotension in this situation.

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