Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?

• A. Serum potassium.
• B. Serum sodium.
• C. Serum chloride.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Atorvastatin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Take this medication in the morning.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice when taking Atorvastatin. Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of Atorvastatin, leading to increased blood levels of the medication, which can result in a higher risk of adverse effects, such as muscle pain and liver damage. It is important for the client to follow this instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of Atorvastatin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While taking Atorvastatin with food may be recommended for some individuals to reduce stomach upset, it is not a crucial instruction. The timing of Atorvastatin administration can vary depending on individual needs and is not universally fixed to the morning. Increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to Atorvastatin use and is not a standard precautionary measure associated with this medication.

3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. This cough is a result of increased bradykinin levels due to ACE inhibition. The client should be educated to monitor for a dry cough and notify the healthcare provider if it occurs, as it may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.

4. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

5. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.

Similar Questions