ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus. Available is morphine sulfate 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.4 mL
- C. 0.6 mL
- D. 0.8 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. To calculate this, divide the desired dose (2 mg) by the concentration of the available solution (10 mg/mL). 2 mg / 10 mg/mL = 0.2 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and desired dose.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
3. A nurse is providing care to a client with staphylococcus epidermidis who is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with the antibiotic therapy.
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Constipation
- C. Infusion reaction
- D. Immunosuppression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Infusion reaction. Vancomycin can cause infusion reactions like 'Red Man Syndrome,' which involves rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Hepatotoxicity (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of vancomycin. Constipation (choice B) is not typically associated with vancomycin use. Immunosuppression (choice D) is not a direct adverse effect of vancomycin therapy.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication to this vaccine?
- A. The possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks
- B. Client allergy to strawberries
- C. Client history of genital herpes
- D. The possibility of overseas travel in the next month
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pregnancy or the possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks is a contraindication for receiving the MMR vaccine. Choice B, client allergy to strawberries, is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine. Choice C, client history of genital herpes, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice D, the possibility of overseas travel in the next month, is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine.
5. A client receiving epoetin alfa therapy for anemia is being monitored for therapeutic effects. Which of the following laboratory values indicates the medication is effective?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Hematocrit
- C. Platelet count
- D. Red blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematocrit. An increase in hematocrit levels indicates the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia. Hematocrit reflects the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, so an increase in hematocrit signifies an improvement in the patient's red blood cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because white blood cell count, platelet count, and red blood cell count do not directly reflect the therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa in treating anemia.
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