Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus. Available is morphine sulfate 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.4 mL
• C. 0.6 mL
• D. 0.8 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. To calculate this, divide the desired dose (2 mg) by the concentration of the available solution (10 mg/mL). 2 mg / 10 mg/mL = 0.2 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and desired dose.

2. A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed montelukast. Which of the following should the nurse include in teaching related to this medication?

• A. Advise the client to take the medication once daily at bedtime
• B. This medication is for the acute management of asthma
• C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication
• D. If the client forgets to take the medication for a few days, he should not double up on doses to catch up

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to take montelukast once daily at bedtime to maintain therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because montelukast is not typically used for acute asthma management but for chronic treatment. Choice C is incorrect as there are no known interactions between montelukast and dairy products. Choice D is incorrect as it is not safe to double up on doses if the client forgets to take the medication; the missed dose should be skipped and the regular dosing schedule maintained.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication to this vaccine?

• A. The possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks
• B. Client allergy to strawberries
• C. Client history of genital herpes
• D. The possibility of overseas travel in the next month

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pregnancy or the possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks is a contraindication for receiving the MMR vaccine. Choice B, client allergy to strawberries, is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine. Choice C, client history of genital herpes, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice D, the possibility of overseas travel in the next month, is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine.

5. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication regimen. Which of the following medications places the client at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Potassium-sparing diuretics
• C. Beta blockers
• D. Loop diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, and hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium channel blockers, potassium-sparing diuretics, and beta blockers do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

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