a nurse is planning care for a patient with diabetes insipidus what should the nurse include in the plan

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. When planning care for a patient with diabetes insipidus, what should the nurse include in the plan?

A. Monitor serum albumin levels
B. Avoid alcohol
C. Teach the patient to increase fluids
D. Increase exercise to reduce stress

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid alcohol.' Alcohol consumption can exacerbate dehydration in patients with diabetes insipidus, so it is essential to advise them to avoid alcohol. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice A) is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Teaching the patient to increase fluids (choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen the condition by further diluting the urine. Increasing exercise to reduce stress (choice D) is not a primary intervention for managing diabetes insipidus.

2. What are the expected signs of compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Fever, swelling, and redness
C. Muscle cramps and weakness
D. Redness and itching

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to inadequate blood supply. This results in severe pain that is unrelieved by rest or medication, pallor due to compromised blood flow, and pulselessness as a late sign of severe ischemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fever, swelling, and redness are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Muscle cramps and weakness may occur due to other conditions, but they are not primary indicators of compartment syndrome. Redness and itching are also not commonly associated with compartment syndrome.

3. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
B. White blood cell count 4,500/mm3
C. Potassium levels 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin levels below 12g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

4. What is the expected ECG finding in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Elevated ST segments
C. Widened QRS complexes
D. Widened QRS complexes on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in serum potassium levels, which can lead to various ECG changes. One of the classic ECG findings associated with hypokalemia is the presence of flattened T waves. These T wave abnormalities are typically seen in multiple leads. Choice B, elevated ST segments, is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia. Choice C, widened QRS complexes, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Choice D is redundant and not a standard way of describing ECG findings.

5. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Elevated ST segments
C. Prominent U waves
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.