Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which intervention should be included in the care plan?

• A. Discourage the client from performing rituals.
• B. Allow the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment.
• C. Encourage the client to focus on their compulsions.
• D. Isolate the client to prevent performance of rituals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment is a common therapeutic approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Allowing the client to engage in rituals can help reduce anxiety by providing temporary relief. It is a part of exposure therapy, where the individual is gradually exposed to anxiety-provoking situations. As treatment progresses, the focus shifts to gradually reducing the frequency and intensity of rituals through interventions like exposure and response prevention therapy. Discouraging the client from performing rituals (Choice A) is not recommended as it may increase anxiety and resistance to treatment. Encouraging the client to focus on their compulsions (Choice C) may reinforce the behavior rather than helping to decrease it. Isolating the client (Choice D) is not therapeutic and can lead to feelings of abandonment and worsen symptoms.

2. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for this condition?

• A. Group therapy
• B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Family therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. CBT helps individuals with ADHD develop coping strategies, improve focus, organization, and time management skills, and address behavioral challenges effectively. Group therapy might not provide the specific skills training needed for ADHD management. Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring deeper unconscious processes and may not be as practical for addressing ADHD symptoms. Family therapy can be beneficial for family dynamics but may not directly target individual ADHD symptoms as effectively as CBT.

3. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Female
• B. 7 years old
• C. Comorbid autism diagnosis
• D. Outbursts occur at least once a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Characteristics such as age, frequency of outbursts, and occurrence in multiple settings support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. While comorbid conditions like autism can coexist with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, it is not a characteristic that serves to support a diagnosis of this specific disorder.

4. Which statement made by a patient prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) demonstrates that the medication education the patient received was effective?

• A. I hope Wellbutrin will help my depression and also help me to finally quit smoking.
• B. I'm happy to hear that I won't need to worry too much about weight gain.
• C. It's okay to take Wellbutrin since I haven't had a seizure in 6 months.
• D. I need to be careful about driving since the medication could make me drowsy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it shows that the patient understands the dual benefits of bupropion (Wellbutrin) in treating depression and aiding in smoking cessation. Bupropion is commonly prescribed for these reasons as it has a lower risk of weight gain compared to other antidepressants. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate because they do not specifically reflect the benefits or key information related to bupropion therapy.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Muscle tension
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Side effects of antipsychotic medications commonly include tardive dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Muscle tension is not typically associated with antipsychotic medication use. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements, orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, and hyperglycemia indicates high blood sugar levels. Monitoring these side effects is crucial for early detection and management, but muscle tension is not a typical side effect of antipsychotic medications.

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