ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which intervention should be included in the care plan?
- A. Discourage the client from performing rituals.
- B. Allow the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment.
- C. Encourage the client to focus on their compulsions.
- D. Isolate the client to prevent performance of rituals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allowing the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment is a common therapeutic approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Allowing the client to engage in rituals can help reduce anxiety by providing temporary relief. It is a part of exposure therapy, where the individual is gradually exposed to anxiety-provoking situations. As treatment progresses, the focus shifts to gradually reducing the frequency and intensity of rituals through interventions like exposure and response prevention therapy. Discouraging the client from performing rituals (Choice A) is not recommended as it may increase anxiety and resistance to treatment. Encouraging the client to focus on their compulsions (Choice C) may reinforce the behavior rather than helping to decrease it. Isolating the client (Choice D) is not therapeutic and can lead to feelings of abandonment and worsen symptoms.
2. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is often used to treat which of the following conditions?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Bipolar disorder
- C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
- D. Generalized anxiety disorder
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a widely used therapeutic approach effective in treating various mental health conditions. While CBT can be beneficial for different disorders, it is particularly well-suited for anxiety-related conditions like generalized anxiety disorder. CBT focuses on identifying and modifying negative thought patterns and behaviors contributing to anxiety, making it a suitable choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because CBT is not typically the first-line treatment for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or posttraumatic stress disorder, although it may be used as a part of a comprehensive treatment plan.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Auditory hallucinations
- B. Delusions of grandeur
- C. A flat affect
- D. Disorganized speech
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delusions of grandeur. Clients with paranoid schizophrenia often experience delusions of grandeur or persecution, auditory hallucinations, and a flat affect. However, the most characteristic finding for paranoid schizophrenia is the presence of delusions, which are fixed false beliefs that are not based in reality. Delusions of grandeur, where individuals believe they are exceptionally powerful or important, are commonly seen in paranoid schizophrenia. Choice A, auditory hallucinations, are more commonly associated with other types of schizophrenia such as paranoid or disorganized schizophrenia. Choice C, a flat affect, is a symptom that can be seen across various types of schizophrenia. Choice D, disorganized speech, is more indicative of disorganized schizophrenia.
4. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?
- A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
- B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
- C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's symptoms and contributing factors.
- D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) to determine which diagnosis to give a patient. The DSM-5 is a comprehensive manual published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) that outlines specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders. It aims to ensure accurate and consistent diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D provide inaccurate information. Hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association does not provide diagnostic labels for mental disorders. Choice C, although mentioning the assessment of patients, does not highlight the specific criteria and guidelines provided by the DSM-5 that psychiatrists use to assign diagnoses.
5. Which statement indicates an understanding of the DSM-5 diagnosis?
- A. The DSM-5 includes information on cultural considerations.
- B. The DSM-5 is a tool for healthcare providers.
- C. The DSM-5 is not used for legal purposes.
- D. The DSM-5 includes information on the prevalence of mental disorders.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the correct answer as the DSM-5 not only provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders but also includes information on cultural considerations. Understanding cultural factors is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate care, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the DSM-5 for healthcare providers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while the DSM-5 is indeed a tool for healthcare providers, it is also used in legal settings, and it focuses on diagnostic criteria and not just the prevalence of mental disorders.
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