ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which intervention should be included in the care plan?
- A. Discourage the client from performing rituals.
- B. Allow the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment.
- C. Encourage the client to focus on their compulsions.
- D. Isolate the client to prevent performance of rituals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allowing the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment is a common therapeutic approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Allowing the client to engage in rituals can help reduce anxiety by providing temporary relief. It is a part of exposure therapy, where the individual is gradually exposed to anxiety-provoking situations. As treatment progresses, the focus shifts to gradually reducing the frequency and intensity of rituals through interventions like exposure and response prevention therapy. Discouraging the client from performing rituals (Choice A) is not recommended as it may increase anxiety and resistance to treatment. Encouraging the client to focus on their compulsions (Choice C) may reinforce the behavior rather than helping to decrease it. Isolating the client (Choice D) is not therapeutic and can lead to feelings of abandonment and worsen symptoms.
2. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Hypothermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.
3. A woman was abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. When found, she was confused and disoriented. The nurse makes the following observations about the client. She is talking rapidly in disjointed phrases, is unable to concentrate, and is indecisive when asked to make simple decisions. The client's level of anxiety can be assessed as
- A. moderate
- B. severe
- C. mild
- D. nonexistent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's presentation, including rapid and disjointed speech, inability to concentrate, and indecisiveness, are indicative of severe anxiety. These symptoms suggest a high level of distress and impairment in cognitive functioning, which aligns with severe anxiety rather than mild or moderate levels. The traumatic experience of being abducted and raped at gunpoint would likely contribute to such a severe level of anxiety.
4. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
5. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?
- A. It includes specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
- B. It is used by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis.
- C. It provides a classification system for mental disorders.
- D. It includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.
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