a nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd which of the following actions should the nurse take
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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with COPD is to encourage the client to increase physical activity. Increased physical activity helps manage COPD symptoms by improving lung function and preventing deconditioning. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended for COPD as it can worsen breathing difficulties. Limiting fluid intake to prevent fluid overload is not typically necessary in COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that require fluid restriction. Administering high-flow oxygen via mask may be necessary for COPD clients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not the initial action for planning care.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a moisture barrier ointment. This intervention helps protect the skin and promote healing in clients with stage 3 pressure injuries. Cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily (Choice A) can be too harsh and may delay healing by damaging the surrounding skin. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide (Choice B) is not recommended as it can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. While repositioning the client every 4 hours (Choice C) is an essential intervention in preventing pressure injuries, it is not directly related to the care of an existing stage 3 pressure injury.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client prescribed with lisinopril is that they should avoid using salt substitutes while taking this medication. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Therefore, using salt substitutes that contain potassium can worsen this condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lisinopril is not typically associated with causing a dry cough or a slow heart rate, and increasing potassium intake can be harmful in the presence of lisinopril-induced hyperkalemia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for potassium chloride. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Before administering potassium chloride, which is used to treat low potassium levels, the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the need for potassium chloride administration.

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