a nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following interventions should the nu
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours. When a client is on TPN, it is crucial to monitor their blood glucose levels frequently to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Weighing the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (choice C) is important for infection control but does not directly relate to the client's metabolic status. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration (choice D) is not a standard practice and may introduce contaminants into the TPN solution.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess for infection in a patient post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing for infection in a patient post-surgery, checking the surgical site is crucial. Changes in the appearance of the surgical site, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage, can indicate an infection. While checking for fever (Choice B) is also important as it can be a sign of infection, it is a more general symptom and may not always be present. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice C) and skin color (Choice D) are not typically direct indicators of infection in a post-surgery patient.

3. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the nurse should increase the client's infusion rate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring an increase in diuresis. This finding suggests that the current diuretic therapy is not effective enough to manage the fluid overload, necessitating an increase in the infusion rate of furosemide. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the need for an increase in diuretic therapy in heart failure patients. Urine output of 20 mL/hr, a heart rate of 90/min, and a sodium level of 138 mEq/L are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically indicate the need to increase the infusion rate of furosemide.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis is experiencing confusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia 145 mcg/dL. An elevated ammonia level can indicate hepatic encephalopathy in clients with liver cirrhosis, leading to confusion. Bilirubin (Choice A) is within the normal range, indicating adequate liver function. Albumin (Choice C) and Hemoglobin (Choice D) levels are also within normal limits and are not directly related to the client's confusion in this scenario.

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