Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Weigh the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours.
• C. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours. When a client is on TPN, it is crucial to monitor their blood glucose levels frequently to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Weighing the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (choice C) is important for infection control but does not directly relate to the client's metabolic status. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration (choice D) is not a standard practice and may introduce contaminants into the TPN solution.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following thoracic surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Clamp the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed.
• B. Empty the drainage system every 8 hours.
• C. Keep the collection device below the client's chest.
• D. Strip the chest tube every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the collection device below the client's chest. This positioning ensures proper drainage of fluid from the chest, preventing backflow of fluids. Clamping the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed is incorrect as it can lead to fluid accumulation and potential complications. Emptying the drainage system every 8 hours is necessary but not the priority over maintaining proper positioning. Stripping the chest tube every 4 hours is an outdated practice and can cause damage to the tissue and should be avoided.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia as an adverse effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with potential adverse effects of digoxin. Sodium levels are not typically affected by digoxin, calcium levels are not a primary concern with digoxin therapy, and magnesium levels are not the most important to monitor for digoxin adverse effects.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure continuously
• B. Weigh the client daily
• C. Monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration
• D. Measure the client's intake and output every 2 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the client's intake and output every 2 hours is essential when caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Milrinone is a medication that affects fluid balance, and monitoring intake and output helps assess the client's response to the medication. Continuous monitoring of blood pressure may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication. While weighing the client daily is important for overall assessment, measuring intake and output more frequently provides more real-time data for fluid balance evaluation. Monitoring the infusion site is crucial for detecting infiltration but is not directly related to managing fluid balance in this situation.

5. What is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Perform a neurological assessment
• C. Administer electrolytes
• D. Prepare for a CT scan

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with confusion, the best initial action is to perform a neurological assessment. This assessment helps in identifying potential causes of confusion such as neurological issues, infections, metabolic abnormalities, or medication side effects. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it is not the first step. Administering electrolytes (Choice C) would also depend on the assessment results. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) may be indicated later in the diagnostic process but is not the initial action when a patient presents with confusion.

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