Nursing Elites

1. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?

• A. Flushing
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.

2. The nurse is reviewing the prescriber�s orders and notes that omeprazole has been order for a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse should be concerned if this medication is combined with which medication noted on the patient�s record.

• A. Aspirin 81mg daily
• B. Clopidogrel (Plavix) 75mg daily
• C. Heparin 5000 units subQ q12hrs
• D. Metoprolol 50mg q8hrs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For patients who lack risk factors for GI bleeding, combined use of clopidogrel with a PPI, may reduce the effects of clopidogrel without offering any real benefits and thus should be avoided.

3. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?

• A. Biots respiration
• B. Chaney-Stokes respiration
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.

4. At what age may an infant close their eyes to bright lights and show improved head control?

• A. 30-33 weeks after conception
• B. 34-36 weeks after conception
• C. Less than 30 weeks after conception
• D. 37-40 weeks after conception

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Around 30-33 weeks after conception, infants usually start closing their eyes in response to bright lights and exhibit enhanced head control. This developmental milestone indicates progress in their visual and motor abilities, reflecting the maturation of their neurological system. As preterm infants continue to grow and develop, they gradually acquire these skills, showcasing the natural progression of their sensory and motor functions.

5. A toddler in the emergency department has partial thickness burns on his right arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Insert a nasogastric tube
• B. Initiate prophylactic antibiotic therapy
• C. Cleanse the affected area with mild soap and water
• D. Apply a topical corticosteroid to the affected area

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a toddler has partial thickness burns, the nurse should cleanse the affected area with mild soap and water. This action helps remove any loose tissue that could lead to infection and prepares the area for appropriate wound care. Inserting a nasogastric tube (Choice A) is not indicated for a toddler with burns. Initiating prophylactic antibiotic therapy (Choice B) is not necessary for partial thickness burns unless there are signs of infection. Applying a topical corticosteroid (Choice D) is not recommended for initial management of burns as it can delay wound healing.

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