Nursing Elites

1. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?

• A. Flushing
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.

2. During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, what action is crucial for a nurse to take?

• A. Administer meperidine for pain.
• B. Apply cold compresses to the child's joints.
• C. Limit the child's fluid intake.
• D. Maintain bed rest for the child.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, maintaining bed rest is crucial to reduce oxygen consumption and alleviate pain. Movement can worsen the crisis by increasing sickling of red blood cells, leading to further tissue damage and pain. Bed rest helps to improve blood flow, reduce pain, and promote healing. Administering meperidine for pain (Choice A) is not recommended due to the risk of normeperidine accumulation and potential neurotoxicity. Applying cold compresses (Choice B) may cause vasoconstriction, worsening the vaso-occlusive crisis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice C) is not appropriate as adequate hydration is essential to prevent dehydration and maintain blood flow.

3. When caring for a child with hyponatremia, a nurse delegates care to a licensed vocational nurse (LVN) and instructs the LVN to promptly report which clinical manifestation?

• A. Seizures
• B. Respiratory distress
• C. Hyperthermia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seizures are a significant concern in severe hyponatremia as they indicate potential neurological complications and the need for urgent intervention to prevent further harm to the child. Prompt reporting of seizures allows for timely assessment and appropriate treatment to ensure the child's safety and well-being.

4. A patient who has PUD and is receiving magnesium hydroxide (MOM) is experiencing an increased number of BM. Which is the nurse�s priority action?

• A. Ask the HCP for a reduction in dose
• B. Encourage the patient to increase dietary fiber
• C. Administer the drug with an aluminum hydroxide antacid
• D. Instruct patient to keep an accurate stool count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: MOM is a rapid-acting antacid with a prominent adverse effect of diarrhea. To compensate, it usually is administered in combo with aluminum hydroxide which promotes constipation. A reduction in dose might be necessary if the diarrhea is severe, but this is not a priority action. Increasing dietary fiber and keeping a stool count are appropriate actions to implement after adding an antacid to counteract the diarrhea effect.

5. During an assessment, which manifestation should a healthcare provider expect in an infant with pyloric stenosis?

• A. Bile-stained vomitus
• B. Distended abdomen
• C. Olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen
• D. Painless, swollen joints

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis in infants typically presents with an olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen due to hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle. This mass can often be palpated during an assessment and is a key characteristic of this condition. Bile-stained vomitus may be seen in conditions such as intestinal obstruction; a distended abdomen can be a nonspecific sign of various conditions, and painless, swollen joints are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis.

Similar Questions