Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Blood pressure 144/82 mm Hg
• B. Urine specific gravity 1.03
• C. Neck vein distention
• D. Urine specific gravity 1.01

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client experiencing vomiting and diarrhea, the nurse should expect findings such as dehydration, which can lead to hypovolemia and subsequent increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. A blood pressure of 144/82 mm Hg is indicative of possible dehydration in this client. Urine specific gravity is typically increased in dehydrated individuals, so choices B and D are incorrect. Neck vein distention is not a typical finding associated with vomiting and diarrhea; therefore, choice C is also incorrect.

2. When preparing for a meeting to discuss the annual budget, what would be the best approach to ensure all relevant points are covered?

• A. Prepare an agenda
• B. Use visual aids
• C. Invite only key stakeholders
• D. Review previous budgets

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Preparing an agenda is the best approach when discussing the annual budget to ensure that all relevant points are covered. An agenda helps structure the meeting, outline key topics, allocate time efficiently, and keep the discussion focused on important budget-related matters. It also assists in setting clear objectives and expectations for the meeting participants, ensuring that all necessary points are addressed and that the meeting stays on track. While using visual aids, inviting only key stakeholders, and reviewing previous budgets can be important steps in the budget discussion process, none of these can replace the crucial role of having a well-prepared agenda.

3. The manager of a medical-surgical unit is very task-motivated. Using Fiedler's Contingency Theory, under what circumstances would the manager be most effective?

• A. Only during highly stressful situations.
• B. When there is little to no stress.
• C. Under highly structured situations.
• D. When the situation is loosely structured.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory, task-motivated managers are most effective under highly structured situations. This is because in such environments, where priorities are clear and tasks are well-defined, task-oriented managers can excel in organizing and accomplishing objectives efficiently. Choices A and B are incorrect because the effectiveness of a task-motivated manager is not solely linked to stress levels but rather to the structure of the situation. Choice D is also incorrect as a loosely structured situation would not provide the clarity and direction that a task-motivated manager thrives in.

4. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of disruptive conflict. In disruptive conflict, the parties involved engage in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. The resident refusing to answer calls and the nurse retaliating with frequent calls to 'get back' at him exemplify behaviors aimed at causing disruption and conflict between them. Perceived conflict refers to each party's perception of the other's position, competitive conflict involves one side winning at the expense of the other, and felt conflict is about the feelings of opposition within the relationship, none of which fully capture the nature of the conflict displayed in this scenario.

5. What is the primary role of a nurse mentor?

• A. To supervise nursing staff
• B. To provide emotional support
• C. To guide new nurses in their roles
• D. To enforce policy compliance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary role of a nurse mentor is to guide new nurses in their roles. This involves providing support, sharing knowledge and expertise, offering guidance for professional development, and assisting new nurses in adjusting to their roles and responsibilities. Option A, supervising nursing staff, is more aligned with a nurse manager's responsibilities rather than a mentor's. Option B, providing emotional support, is a part of the mentorship role but not the primary focus. Option D, enforcing policy compliance, is essential but not the primary role of a mentor, as mentoring focuses more on nurturing and developing new nurses.

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