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1. A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Blood pressure 144/82 mm Hg
- B. Urine specific gravity 1.03
- C. Neck vein distention
- D. Urine specific gravity 1.01
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client experiencing vomiting and diarrhea, the nurse should expect findings such as dehydration, which can lead to hypovolemia and subsequent increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. A blood pressure of 144/82 mm Hg is indicative of possible dehydration in this client. Urine specific gravity is typically increased in dehydrated individuals, so choices B and D are incorrect. Neck vein distention is not a typical finding associated with vomiting and diarrhea; therefore, choice C is also incorrect.
2. What is the primary role of a nurse mentor?
- A. To supervise nursing staff
- B. To provide emotional support
- C. To guide new nurses in their roles
- D. To enforce policy compliance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary role of a nurse mentor is to guide new nurses in their roles. This involves providing support, sharing knowledge and expertise, offering guidance for professional development, and assisting new nurses in adjusting to their roles and responsibilities. Option A, supervising nursing staff, is more aligned with a nurse manager's responsibilities rather than a mentor's. Option B, providing emotional support, is a part of the mentorship role but not the primary focus. Option D, enforcing policy compliance, is essential but not the primary role of a mentor, as mentoring focuses more on nurturing and developing new nurses.
3. When a patient with type 2 diabetes is admitted for a cholecystectomy, which nursing action can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?
- A. Communicate the blood glucose level and insulin dose to the circulating nurse in surgery.
- B. Discuss the reason for the use of insulin therapy during the immediate postoperative period.
- C. Administer the prescribed lispro (Humalog) insulin before transporting the patient to surgery.
- D. Plan strategies to minimize the risk for hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia during the postoperative period.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the administration of prescribed lispro (Humalog) insulin before transporting the patient to surgery is a task that can be safely delegated to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN). This action is within the scope of practice of an LPN/LVN and does not require independent nursing judgment. Choices A and B involve communicating and discussing important medical information, which are higher-level nursing actions typically performed by registered nurses. Choice D involves planning strategies to manage blood glucose levels postoperatively, which requires critical thinking and assessment skills usually performed by a registered nurse.
4. A manager has been given a deadline to complete an assignment by the end of the day. It will take every minute left of the afternoon to complete. Which interventions illustrate assertiveness to minimize interruptions in order to meet the deadline? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Allowing voicemail to answer all incoming calls or turning off email notification
- B. Delegating a discharge planning issue for a patient to one of the staff nurses
- C. Placing a 'Do Not Disturb for the Afternoon' sign on the office door
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All the interventions listed are appropriate ways to minimize interruptions. By allowing voicemail to answer calls or turning off email notifications, the manager can focus solely on the assignment. Delegating tasks to staff nurses frees up the manager's time. Placing a 'Do Not Disturb for the Afternoon' sign on the office door sends a clear message to minimize interruptions and focus on the deadline. Therefore, all of the above interventions illustrate assertiveness to meet the deadline by minimizing interruptions.
5. A diabetic patient who has reported burning foot pain at night receives a new prescription. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about amitriptyline (Elavil)?
- A. Amitriptyline decreases the depression caused by your foot pain.
- B. Amitriptyline helps prevent transmission of pain impulses to the brain.
- C. Amitriptyline corrects some of the blood vessel changes that cause pain.
- D. Amitriptyline improves sleep and reduces awareness of nighttime pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, which helps in reducing the transmission of pain impulses to the brain. Choice A is incorrect because amitriptyline primarily works on pain transmission rather than directly on depression. Choice C is inaccurate as amitriptyline's mechanism of action is not related to correcting blood vessel changes. Choice D is partially true as amitriptyline can improve sleep, but the primary mechanism related to pain relief is by preventing pain impulses from reaching the brain.
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