Nursing Elites

1. A client is caring for a postoperative client on the surgical unit. The client's blood pressure was 142/76 mm Hg 30 minutes ago and is now 88/50 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Call the Rapid Response Team.
• B. Document and continue to monitor.
• C. Notify the primary care provider.
• D. Repeat blood pressure measurement in 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the significant drop in blood pressure indicates a potential emergency situation. The correct action is to call the Rapid Response Team (RRT) to ensure prompt intervention and prevent further deterioration that could lead to respiratory or cardiac arrest. It is crucial to act swiftly in response to such a critical change in vital signs to provide the client with the necessary care and support.

2. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

3. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

4. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

5. A nurse assesses a client who has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. Production of pink sputum
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Pain at insertion site
• D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a mediastinal chest tube, the presence of pink sputum does not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, tracheal deviation could indicate a tension pneumothorax, sudden shortness of breath could signal tube issues or pneumothorax, and drainage exceeding 70 mL/hr might suggest hemorrhage. Disconnection at the Y site could lead to air entering the tubing, necessitating prompt attention.

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