Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a patient who requires measurement of specific gravity every 4 hours. What does this test detect?

• A. Nutritional deficit
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Fluid volume status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Specific gravity is a test used to determine the concentration of solutes in the urine, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate urine. Changes in specific gravity can indicate fluid volume status, such as dehydration (fluid volume deficit) or overhydration (fluid volume excess). Options A, B, and C are incorrect as specific gravity does not directly detect nutritional deficits, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia.

2. The physician has ordered a peripheral IV to be inserted before the patient goes for computed tomography. What should the nurse do when selecting a site on the hand or arm for insertion of an IV catheter?

• A. Choose a hairless site if available.
• B. Consider potential effects on the patients mobility when selecting a site.
• C. Have the patient briefly hold his arm over his head before insertion
• D. Leave the tourniquet on for at least 3 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

3. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is admitted with moderate dehydration. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent injury while in the hospital?

• A. Ask family members to speak quietly to keep the client calm.
• B. Assess urine color, amount, and specific gravity each day.
• C. Encourage the client to drink at least 1 liter of fluids each shift.
• D. Dangle the client on the bedside before ambulating.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'dangle the client on the bedside before ambulating.' This intervention helps prevent orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, which is crucial in preventing falls and related injuries in older adult clients. Asking family members to speak quietly (Choice A) may help keep the client calm but does not directly address the risk of injury. Assessing urine parameters (Choice B) is important for monitoring hydration status but does not specifically prevent injury. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice C) is essential for managing dehydration but does not directly address the risk of injury during ambulation.

4. When does dehydration begin to occur?

• A. the body reduces fluid output to zero.
• B. the body increases the release of ANH.
• C. the salivary secretions decrease.
• D. the salivary secretions increase.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dehydration leads to a decrease in the body's fluid levels, causing the salivary glands to produce less saliva, resulting in a dry mouth. Therefore, when dehydration begins to occur, salivary secretions decrease. Choice A is incorrect because the body does not reduce fluid output to zero during dehydration; it tries to conserve fluids. Choice B is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase the release of ANH (Atrial Natriuretic Hormone). Choice D is incorrect because salivary secretions do not increase but decrease during dehydration.

5. The triage nurse notes upon assessment in the emergency room that the patient with anxiety is hyperventilating. The nurse is aware that hyperventilation is the most common cause of which acid-base imbalance?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. Hyperventilation is the most common cause of acute respiratory alkalosis. When a patient hyperventilates due to anxiety or other causes, they blow off excessive carbon dioxide, leading to a decrease in PaCO2 and a rise in pH. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperventilation leads to a decrease in PaCO2, causing respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.

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