Nursing Elites

1. A newborn delivered at 41 weeks of gestation is showing signs of postmaturity. Which of the following findings is an indication of fetal postmaturity?

• A. Soft, flexible ear cartilage
• B. Smooth soles without creases
• C. Thin with loose skin
• D. Vernix caseosa covering the body

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Thin with loose skin.' Postmature newborns are typically thin with loose skin due to prolonged gestation. This may result from placental insufficiency, leading to reduced subcutaneous fat stores. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Soft, flexible ear cartilage (choice A) is a normal finding in newborns. Smooth soles without creases (choice B) are also typical in newborns. Vernix caseosa covering the body (choice D) is a protective, waxy coating found on newborns, which may be present in postmature infants as well.

2. A client who is 2 days postpartum and breastfeeding reports nipple soreness. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid using a breast pump.
• B. Apply breast milk to the nipples after feedings.
• C. Feed the newborn less frequently.
• D. Use a nipple shield during feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to apply breast milk to the nipples after feedings. Breast milk has healing properties and can help soothe sore nipples. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the use of a breast pump does not directly address nipple soreness. Option C is incorrect as feeding the newborn less frequently can lead to engorgement and further complications. Option D is incorrect as using a nipple shield during feedings may not address the underlying issue of soreness and can sometimes even worsen the situation.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 1+ proteinuria
• B. Blood pressure 144/92 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate 22/min
• D. Urine output 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should report a urine output of 20 mL/hr. This finding can indicate decreased renal perfusion and possible development of preeclampsia, which is a severe complication of gestational hypertension. Inadequate urine output can suggest compromised kidney function and impaired maternal and fetal well-being. Options A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client with gestational hypertension and may not require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and has a prescription for methylergonovine. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Headache
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Nausea
• D. Increased vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. Methylergonovine can cause vasoconstriction, leading to headaches. It is important for the client to report this adverse effect to the provider as it may indicate a serious complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methylergonovine is not typically associated with diarrhea, nausea, or increased vaginal bleeding as common adverse effects.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hyperreflexia
• C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, leading to a decreased respiratory rate. A respiratory rate of 10/min is abnormally low and indicates magnesium toxicity. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (Choice B) is a common sign of magnesium toxicity. Polyuria (Choice D) is not a typical finding of magnesium toxicity.

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