Nursing Elites

1. A newborn delivered at 41 weeks of gestation is showing signs of postmaturity. Which of the following findings is an indication of fetal postmaturity?

• A. Soft, flexible ear cartilage
• B. Smooth soles without creases
• C. Thin with loose skin
• D. Vernix caseosa covering the body

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Thin with loose skin.' Postmature newborns are typically thin with loose skin due to prolonged gestation. This may result from placental insufficiency, leading to reduced subcutaneous fat stores. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Soft, flexible ear cartilage (choice A) is a normal finding in newborns. Smooth soles without creases (choice B) are also typical in newborns. Vernix caseosa covering the body (choice D) is a protective, waxy coating found on newborns, which may be present in postmature infants as well.

2. A client in the first trimester of pregnancy who is experiencing nausea is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Drink water with meals
• B. Consume small, frequent meals
• C. Eat high-fat foods
• D. Lie down after eating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy experiencing nausea is to consume small, frequent meals. This helps alleviate nausea by preventing an empty stomach and maintaining stable blood sugar levels. Drinking water with meals can sometimes exacerbate nausea, especially in the case of morning sickness. Eating high-fat foods can be heavy on the stomach and worsen nausea. Lying down after eating can lead to reflux and is not recommended, especially for pregnant individuals experiencing nausea.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and has a prescription for methylergonovine. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Headache
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Nausea
• D. Increased vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. Methylergonovine can cause vasoconstriction, leading to headaches. It is important for the client to report this adverse effect to the provider as it may indicate a serious complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methylergonovine is not typically associated with diarrhea, nausea, or increased vaginal bleeding as common adverse effects.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin for labor induction. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?

• A. Contraction frequency of every 3 minutes
• B. Contraction duration of 80 seconds
• C. Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate
• D. Urine output of 50 mL/hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate require immediate intervention as they can indicate fetal distress due to uteroplacental insufficiency. This finding suggests a compromised blood flow to the fetus, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Contraction frequency and duration are important to monitor but do not necessitate immediate intervention unless they are causing fetal distress. Urine output of 50 mL/hr is within the normal range for a client in labor and does not require immediate intervention.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client reports constipation
• B. Client reports swelling in the face
• C. Client reports heartburn
• D. Client reports frequent urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because facial swelling can indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition during pregnancy that requires immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), heartburn (choice C), and frequent urination (choice D) are common discomforts during pregnancy and are not typically indicative of a serious complication like preeclampsia at 32 weeks of gestation.

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