ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A client requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Offer fluids every 2 hours.
- B. Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
- C. Discuss the client's inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion.
- D. Assess the client's behavior every hour.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it ensures that the decision to use seclusion is based on appropriate justifications and helps in monitoring the client's progress and response to the intervention. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is not directly related to the need for seclusion. Discussing the client's behavior prior to seclusion (Choice C) may not be appropriate at the moment when immediate action is required to prevent harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but not as immediate as documenting the behavior prior to seclusion.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Increased urinary output.
- C. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg.
- D. Decreased peripheral edema.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.
3. A charge nurse is educating a group of unit nurses about delegating client tasks to assistive personnel. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. The nurse is legally responsible for the actions of the AP.
- B. An AP can perform tasks outside of their scope if they have been trained.
- C. An experienced AP can delegate tasks to another AP.
- D. An RN evaluates the client's needs to determine tasks to delegate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is D: 'An RN evaluates the client's needs to determine which tasks are appropriate to delegate to assistive personnel.' This is an essential step in the delegation process to ensure that tasks are assigned appropriately based on the client's condition and the competencies of the assistive personnel. Option A is incorrect because while the nurse retains accountability for delegation decisions, the AP is responsible for their actions. Option B is incorrect as tasks should be within the AP's scope of practice regardless of training. Option C is incorrect as delegation typically involves assigning tasks from the RN to the AP, not between APs.
4. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?
- A. A client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min.
- B. A client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy.
- C. A client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis.
- D. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Piloerection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.
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