a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 60 meql which of the following findings should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin should avoid leafy green vegetables because they are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements related to taking warfarin. Regular INR monitoring is necessary to ensure the medication is within the therapeutic range, using a soft toothbrush reduces the risk of bleeding gums, and taking the medication at the same time daily helps maintain consistent blood levels.

3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. A nurse is preparing to reposition a client who had a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's ability to help with repositioning. When caring for a client who had a stroke, assessing their ability to participate in repositioning is crucial for promoting safety and encouraging their involvement in their care. This evaluation helps determine the level of assistance needed and supports the client's autonomy. Option A is incorrect because raising the side rails alone does not address the client's active involvement in repositioning. Option B is incorrect as using assistive devices may be necessary for safe repositioning. Option C is incorrect as discussing preferences is important but does not directly address the client's ability to assist in repositioning.

5. What is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's level of consciousness?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Using the Glasgow Coma Scale. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a standardized tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness by evaluating their eye response, verbal response, and motor response. This scale provides a numeric value that helps in determining the severity of brain injury or altered mental status. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while assessing the patient's orientation, checking pupillary response, and monitoring vital signs are important components of a comprehensive patient assessment, they do not specifically target the assessment of consciousness level, which is best done using the Glasgow Coma Scale.

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